text: Every power and duty granted to or imposed upon the director under this chapter may be delegated to the chief, except that the director may not delegate authority to adopt or otherwise act upon any proposed decision of a hearing officer after a hearing under the provisions of Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. The chief may delegate any power or duty granted to or imposed upon him or her under this chapter to the deputy chief, to the assistant chief, or to any inspection, investigation, or auditing personnel of the bureau.

article: 2. Administration


kind: section

code: BPC

text: The director, in accordance with the State Civil Service Act, and Section 159.5, may appoint and fix the compensation of such clerical, inspection, investigation, and auditing personnel, as well as an assistant chief, as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Except as otherwise provided in Section 159.5, all personnel shall perform their respective duties under the supervision and direction of the chief.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1982, Ch. 1210, Sec. 12.)

division: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY

chapter: 11.6. Alarm Companies

article: 2. Administration

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 2. Administration


text: The chief shall gather evidence of violations of this chapter and of any rule or regulation established under this chapter by unlicensed persons who engage in a business for which a license is required under this chapter and shall furnish the same to prosecuting officers of any county or city or city and county for the purpose of prosecuting those violations.

article: 2. Administration


text: It shall be the duty of the chief to initiate and conduct investigations into the business operations of alarm company operators on his or her own motion, if the alarm company operator is not operating in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, or there has been a written complaint to the bureau about the actions and conduct of the alarm company operator or his or her employees or agents.

article: 2. Administration


text: The director, taking into consideration the recommendations of the advisory board, may establish and enforce such rules and regulations as may be reasonable and necessary for the examination and licensing of applicants, for the conduct of licensees, and for the general enforcement of the various provisions of this chapter in the protection of the public.

article: 2. Administration


text: The chief or his or her designee may inspect, examine, or investigate the relevant records, books, accounts, and files created and maintained by the alarm company operator. The chief shall have access to those relevant business records, not including client information relating to the operational integrity of the alarm system, necessary to the examination for the purpose of performing a random audit to determine compliance with the provisions of this chapter.

article: 2. Administration


text:
The director may automatically suspend a license, registration, or firearm qualification card if it is determined that the continued possession of such a license, registration, or card by the licensee, registrant, or card holder presents an undue hazard to public safety which may result in substantial injury to another.

A licensee, registrant, or firearm qualification card holder may request a review by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee as set forth in Section 7591.19 to appeal the suspension.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1984, Ch. 1299, Sec. 23.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
If, upon investigation, the chief determines that an alarm company operator, a qualified manager, or an alarm agent is in violation of Sections 7597.1, 7597.2, 7597.3, 7597.5, 7597.6, 7598.51, 7598.53, 7599.32, 7599.33, 7599.34, 7599.36, 7599.37, 7599.38, 7599.39, 7599.40, 7599.41, 7599.42, 7599.43, 7599.44, 7599.45, 7599.46, 7599.47, 7599.48, 7599.49, 7599.50, 7599.51, 7599.52, 7599.53, 7599.54, 7599.55, 7599.58, and 7599.59, the director may issue a citation to, and fine, the alarm company operator, qualified manager, or alarm agent. The citation and fine assessment shall be in writing and shall describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of law determined to have been violated. The citation shall contain an order of abatement fixing a reasonable time for abatement of the violation and may contain assessment of an administrative fine. The amount of the fine for any single investigation or audit of an alarm company operator, a qualified manager, or an alarm agent shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500).

A citation and fine assessment shall inform the alarm company operator, qualified manager, or alarm agent that if they desire a review by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee, the review shall be requested by written notice to the chief within 30 days of the issuance of the citation and assessment, as appropriate. If a review is not requested pursuant to this section, payment of any fine shall not constitute an admission of the violation charged. A review shall be held pursuant to the provisions of Section 7591.19.

If the alarm company operator, qualified manager, or alarm agent fails to request a review or fails to pay the assessed fine within 30 days of the assessment, the license, certificate, or registration shall not be renewed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter until the assessed fine is paid.

Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the Private Security Services Fund.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2019, Ch. 377, Sec. 37. (SB 609) Effective January 1, 2020.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) The director may deny a license, certificate, or registration regulated by this chapter on the grounds that the applicant has done any of the following:

(1) Knowingly made a false statement of fact required to be revealed in the application for a license.

(2) Been convicted of a crime. A conviction within the meaning of this section means a plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere. Any action which the bureau is permitted to take following the establishment of a conviction may be taken when the time for appeal has elapsed, or the judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal, or when an order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under the provisions of Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code.

(3) Done any act involving dishonesty, fraud, or deceit with the intent to substantially benefit himself, herself, or another, or to substantially injure another.

(4) Done any act which if done by a licensee would be grounds for suspension or revocation of a license.

(5) Done any act without a license for which a license is required under this chapter.

(6) Been refused a license under this chapter or had a license revoked.

(7) Been an officer, partner, member, manager, or qualified manager of any person who has been refused a license under this chapter or whose license has been suspended or revoked.

The bureau may deny a license, certificate, or registration pursuant to this section only if the crime or act is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the license, certificate, or registration for which application has been made.

The denial of a license, certificate, or registration shall be in writing and shall describe the basis for the denial. The denial shall inform the applicant that if he or she desires a review by the disciplinary review committee the review shall be requested within 30 days of the issuance of the denial. A review shall be held pursuant to the provisions of Section 7591.19.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, no person shall be denied a license, certificate, or registration solely on the basis that he or she has been convicted of a felony, if he or she has obtained a certificate of rehabilitation pursuant to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 4852.01) of Title 6 of Part 3 of the Penal Code, or solely on the basis that he or she has been convicted of a misdemeanor, if he or she has met all applicable requirements of the criteria of rehabilitation as provided in Section 7591.12.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2015, Ch. 140, Sec. 3) by Stats. 2018, Ch. 406, Sec. 8. (SB 904) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) The bureau shall deny a firearms permit, pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6 of the Penal Code, to any licensee, qualified manager, or alarm agent who has been convicted of a felony, unless the felony conviction has been reduced pursuant to Section 17 of the Penal Code or the person has been pardoned by the Governor. The licensee, qualified manager, or alarm agent shall not have a right to a review or a hearing if the denial is made pursuant to this section.

(b) The bureau shall not issue a firearms permit pursuant to this chapter to an applicant who, within the past 12 months, has been found incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control, for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of his or her duties pursuant to the assessment required under Section 7583.47 for a permit associated with a security guard registration.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 47. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) When considering the denial, suspension, or revocation of a license, certificate, or registration, for which application has been made under this chapter, the chief, in evaluating the rehabilitation of the applicant and his or her present eligibility for a license, certificate, or registration shall consider all the following criteria:

(1) The nature and severity of the act or crime under consideration as grounds for denial.

(2) Total criminal record.

(3) Evidence of any act committed subsequent to the act or crime under consideration as grounds for a denial, suspension, or revocation which also could be considered as grounds for denial under Section 7591.10.

(4) The time that has elapsed since commission of the act or crime referred to in paragraph (1) or (2).

(5) The extent to which the applicant has complied with any terms of parole, probation, restitution, or any other sanctions lawfully imposed against the applicant.

(6) Evidence, if any, of rehabilitation submitted by the applicant.

(b) When considering a petition for reinstatement of a license, certificate, or registration, the chief shall evaluate evidence of rehabilitation, considering those criteria of rehabilitation listed in subdivision (a).

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) The chief or his or her designee may issue a citation, in accordance with Section 148, against a person who is not otherwise exempt under this chapter and is acting or offering to act in the capacity of a licensee, registrant, permitholder, or certificate holder under this chapter without a valid license, registration, permit, or certificate, as applicable, under this chapter.

(b) The chief or his or her designee may issue a citation against a person who places, or causes to be placed, an advertisement in any written, printed, or verbal communication for the purposes of soliciting business as an alarm company operator without a license under or an exemption from this chapter.

(c) A citation issued under this section may contain an assessment of an administrative fine up to five thousand dollars ($5,000) or, where appropriate, an order of abatement fixing a reasonable period of time not to exceed 30 days for abatement, or both that fine and order of abatement.

(d) A citation issued under this section shall meet the following requirements:

(1) Be in writing and describe with particularity the nature of the violation, including specific reference to the provision of this chapter or the regulation adopted thereunder determined to have been violated.

(2) Inform the cited person that if he or she desires a hearing to contest the finding of a violation, that hearing shall be requested by written notice to the bureau within 30 days of the issuance of the citation.

(3) Inform the cited person that if he or she desires an informal conference with the chief or his or her designee to contest the finding of a violation, that informal conference shall be requested by written notice to the bureau within 10 days of the issuance of the citation.

(4) Be served upon the cited person in person or by certified mail.

(e) The chief or his or her designee shall consider the following factors when determining the amount of an administrative fine under this section:

(1) The good or bad faith exhibited by the cited person.

(2) The nature and severity of the violation.

(3) Evidence that the violation was willful.

(4) History of violations of the same or similar nature.

(5) The extent to which the cited person has cooperated with the bureau.

(6) The extent to which the cited person has mitigated or attempted to mitigate any damage or injury caused by his or her violation.

(7) Any other factors as justice may require.

(f) The time allowed for abatement of a citation issued under this section shall begin the first day after the order of abatement has been served. If a cited person who has been issued an order of abatement is unable to complete the correction within the timeframe set forth in the citation because of conditions beyond his or her control after the exercise of reasonable diligence, the person cited may request any extension of time in which to complete the correction from the chief or his or her designee. The request for an extension shall be in writing and shall be made within the timeframe set forth for abatement.

(g) If a person cited pursuant to this section desires a hearing to contest the citation, the cited person shall, within 30 days after service of the citation, file in writing a request for an administrative hearing to the chief or his or her designee regarding the acts charged in the citation, in accordance with paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 125.9.

(h) (1) In addition to, or instead of, requesting an administrative hearing, as provided for in subdivision (d), a person cited pursuant to this section may, within 10 days after service of the citation, contest the citation by submitting a written request for an informal citation conference to the chief or his or her designee.

(2) Upon receipt of a written request for an informal citation conference pursuant to paragraph (1), the chief or his or her designee shall, within 30 days, hold an informal citation conference with the cited person. If an informal citation conference is held, the chief or his or her designee may affirm, modify, or dismiss the citation, including any fine levied or order of abatement issued, at the conclusion of the informal citation conference. If affirmed or modified, the citation originally issued shall be considered withdrawn and an affirmed or modified citation shall be mailed to the cited person and his or her legal counsel, if any, within 15 days of the date of the informal citation conference.

(3) If a cited person wishes to contest a citation that is affirmed or modified pursuant to paragraph (2), the person shall, within 30 days of receiving the affirmed or modified citation, file in writing a request for an administrative hearing to the chief or his or her designee regarding the acts charged in the affirmed or modified citation, in accordance with paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 125.9.

(4) A cited person shall not request a subsequent informal conference with respect to a citation that is modified or affirmed during an informal conference under this subdivision.

(i) When an order of abatement is not contested or if the order is appealed and the person or entity cited does not prevail, failure to abate the violation charged within the timeframe specified in the citation or within 30 days after the appeal, whichever is later, shall constitute a violation and failure to comply with the order of abatement.

(j) This section shall not apply to a violation of this chapter that is subject to Section 7591.9.

(k) The sanctions authorized under this section shall be separate from, and in addition to, all other remedies either civil or criminal.

(l) Administrative fines collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the Private Security Services Fund.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2012, Ch. 291, Sec. 6. (SB 1077) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 2. Administration


text: It is the intent of the Legislature, consistent with Section 128.5 of the Business and Professions Code, that the bureau shall not maintain a reserve balance of funds greater than the amount necessary to fund operating expenses of the bureau and that the bureau shall periodically review fees pursuant to this chapter to evaluate the appropriateness of each fee and the regulatory costs associated with each fee.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2017, Ch. 429, Sec. 49. (SB 547) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
The Governor shall appoint an Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee.

The disciplinary review committee shall consist of three members who are actively engaged in business as licensed alarm company operators and two public members. The committee shall meet every 60 days, or more or less frequently as may be required. The members shall be paid per diem pursuant to Section 103 and shall be reimbursed for actual travel expenses. The members shall serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1992, Ch. 1135, Sec. 10.4. Effective January 1, 1993. Operative March 1, 1993, pursuant to Sec. 30 of Ch. 1135.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) The Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee shall perform the following functions:

(1) Affirm, rescind, or modify all appealed decisions concerning administrative fines assessed by the bureau against alarm company operators or their employees.

(2) Affirm, rescind, or modify all appealed decisions concerning denial, revocation, or suspension of licenses, and certificates, registrations, or permits issued by the bureau, except denials or suspensions ordered by the director in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(b) The Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee may grant a probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit with respect to the appealed decisions described in subdivision (a).

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 291, Sec. 7. (SB 1077) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 2. Administration


text:
(a) (1) An alarm company operator, qualified manager, or alarm agent may request a review by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee to contest the assessment of an administrative fine, unless the fine is assessed pursuant to Section 7591.13, or to appeal a denial, revocation, or suspension, unless the denial or suspension is ordered by the director in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code or in accordance with Section 7591.8 of this code.

(2) A request for a review shall be by written notice to the bureau within 30 days of the issuance of the citation and assessment, denial, or suspension.

(3) Following a review by the disciplinary review committee, the appellant shall be notified within 30 days, in writing, by regular mail, of the committee’s decision.

(4) If the appellant disagrees with the decision made by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee, he or she may request a hearing as outlined in subdivision (b). A request for a hearing following a decision by the disciplinary review committee shall be by written notice to the bureau within 30 days of the committee’s decision.

(5) If the appellant does not request a hearing within 30 days, the review committee’s decision shall become final.

(b) (1) An alarm company operator, qualified manager, or alarm agent may request a hearing in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code if he or she contests an assessment of an administrative fine, or to appeal a denial, suspension, or revocation. A hearing may also be requested if the appellant disagrees with the decision made by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee.

(2) A request for a hearing shall be by written notice to the bureau within 30 days of the issuance of the decision by the review committee. A hearing pursuant to this subdivision shall be available only after a review by the disciplinary review committee.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 291, Sec. 8. (SB 1077) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 2. Administration


text: The disciplinary review committee shall be provided all evidence used by the bureau in reaching its decision prior to hearing an appeal.

article: 2. Administration


citation: BPC § 7592

text: No person shall engage within this state in the activities of an alarm company operator as defined in Section 7590.2, unless the person holds a valid alarm company operator’s license or is exempt from the provisions of this chapter.

article: 3. Application of Chapter

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 3. Application of Chapter


text: Any person who violates any provision of this chapter, or who conspires with another person to violate any provision of this chapter, or who knowingly engages an unlicensed alarm company operator after being notified in writing by the bureau of the alarm company operator’s unlicensed status with the bureau, is guilty of a misdemeanor, and is punishable by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment in the county jail for not more than one year, or by both such fine and imprisonment.

article: 3. Application of Chapter


text: Any person who engages in any business regulated by this chapter, who acts as or represents himself or herself to be a licensee under this chapter, who falsely represents that he or she is employed by a licensee, or who carries a badge, identification card, or business card, or uses a letterhead or advertises that he or she is a licensee under this chapter, unless such person is licensed under this chapter, is guilty of a misdemeanor, and is punishable by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment in the county jail for not more than one year, or by both such fine and imprisonment.

article: 3. Application of Chapter


text: No person engaged in performing any service requiring a license under this chapter may bring or maintain any action in any court of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any act or agreement, without alleging and proving, that the person was duly licensed at all times during the performance of the act or agreement.

article: 3. Application of Chapter


text: Any person who knowingly falsifies fingerprints or photographs as required for any provisions of this chapter is guilty of a felony.

article: 3. Application of Chapter


text:
(a) The provisions of this chapter shall not prevent the local authorities of any city, county, or city and county, by ordinance and within the exercise of the police power of the city, county, or city and county from:

(1) Requiring alarm company operator licensees to meet the requirements for and obtain a business permit.

(2) Requiring alarm agents or alarm company operators, or both, to register their name and file a copy of their state issued identification card with the city, county, or city and county. No fee, other than a fee for a business license permit, may be charged nor may any application be required by the city, county, or city and county for that registration.

(3) (A) Enacting ordinances governing false alarm activations and responses.

(B) An alarm company operator or an alarm agent shall not be liable for civil penalties and fines assessed or imposed by a city, county, or city and county for false alarms not attributed to alarm company operator error, improper installation of the alarm system by an alarm agent or an alarm company operator, defective equipment provided or installed by an alarm agent or an alarm company operator, or defective equipment leased by an alarm company operator.

(4) Requiring persons who own, lease, rent, or otherwise possess an alarm system to obtain a permit to operate the alarm system.

(b) This section shall not be construed to affect the authority of a city, county, or city and county to adopt and enforce ordinances requiring alarm companies to attempt to verify alarm events before requesting dispatch.

(c) Except as otherwise required to comply with this chapter, this section shall not be construed to require the bureau to investigate, hear, or adjudicate a cause of action between an alarm company and a city, county, or city and county that pertains to liability for penalties imposed under an ordinance enacted by the city, county, or city and county.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 157, Sec. 1. (AB 1616) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 3. Application of Chapter


text:
Notwithstanding Section 7592.8, a city, county, or city and county that requires a person who owns, leases, rents, or otherwise possesses an alarm system to obtain a local use permit to operate the alarm system shall not fine an alarm company for requesting dispatch to a customer, whether residential or commercial, that does not have a current local use permit if either apply:

(a) It was not the alarm company’s legal responsibility to obtain the local use permit for the customer or renew the local use permit for the customer.

(b) If it is the alarm company’s legal responsibility to renew the local use permit for the customer, the alarm company was not notified that the customer’s local use permit had expired.

(c) Except as otherwise required by this chapter, this section shall not be construed to require the bureau to investigate, hear, or adjudicate a cause of action between an alarm company and a city, county, or city and county that pertains to liability for penalties imposed under an ordinance enacted by the city, county, or city and county.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 22. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)

article: 3. Application of Chapter


citation: BPC § 7593

text:
An application for an alarm company operator license shall be made in writing to, and filed with, the chief in the form that may be required by the director and shall be accompanied by the original license fee prescribed by this chapter. The chief may require the submission of any other relevant information, evidence, statements, or documents.

Every application for an alarm company operator license shall state, among other things that may be required, the name of the applicant with the name under which the applicant will do business, and the location by street and number, and city of the office of the business for which the license is sought. All information obtained on the application shall be confidential pursuant to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code) and shall not be released to the public except for the registrant’s full name, the employer’s name and address, and the registration number. Nothing in this section shall preclude the release of information to the public regarding the status of an operator’s license, or the release of information to law enforcement agencies or other governmental agencies for other authorized purposes.

No license shall be issued in any fictitious name which may be confused with or which is similar to any federal, state, county, or municipal governmental function or agency or to any law enforcement agency, or in any name which may tend to describe any business function or enterprise not actually engaged in by the applicant.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1995, Ch. 359, Sec. 1. Effective January 1, 1996.)

article: 4. Licenses

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 4. Licenses


text:
(a) Each individual applicant, partner of a partnership, designated officer of a corporation, member, officer, or manager of a limited liability company, and a qualified manager shall submit with the application one personal identification form provided by the chief, with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, and personal description of each such person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years.

(b) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.

(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2030, and as of that date is repealed.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2022, Ch. 625, Sec. 38) by Stats. 2024, Ch. 484, Sec. 43. (SB 1454) Effective January 1, 2025. Repealed as of January 1, 2030, by its own provisions. See later operative version, as amended by Sec. 44 of Stats. 2024, Ch. 484.)

article: 4. Licenses


text:
(a) Each individual applicant, partner of a partnership, designated officer of a corporation, and a qualified manager shall submit with the application, one personal identification form provided by the chief, with two legible sets of fingerprints, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, and personal description of each such person, respectively. The identification form shall include residence addresses and employment history for the previous five years.

(b) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.

(c) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2030.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2022, Ch. 625, Sec. 39) by Stats. 2024, Ch. 484, Sec. 44. (SB 1454) Effective January 1, 2025. Operative January 1, 2030, by its own provisions.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: If the applicant for license is an individual, the application shall state the full name of the individual, the full residence address of the applicant, and that the applicant is to be personally and actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought; or if any other qualified manager is to be actively in charge of the business, the application shall so state and set forth the name of that person. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by the applicant, under penalty of perjury.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 40.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: If the applicants for license are copartners, the application shall state the true names and addresses of all the general partners and the name of the partner to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought; or if a qualified manager other than a partner is to be actively in charge of the business then the application shall state the name and address of that person. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed under penalty of perjury by all of the general partners.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 41.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: If the applicant for license is a corporation, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of the chief executive officer, secretary, chief financial officer, and any other corporate officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A copy of the articles of incorporation issued by the Secretary of State shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized officer of the applicant under penalty of perjury.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 42.)

article: 4. Licenses


text:
(a) If the applicant for a license is a limited liability company, the application shall state the true names and complete residence addresses of each member, manager, and any other officer who will be active in the business to be licensed. A copy of the articles of organization issued by the Secretary of State shall be supplied to the bureau upon request. The application shall also state the name and address of the designated person to be actively in charge of the business for which the license is sought. The application shall be subscribed, verified, and signed by a duly authorized member of the applicant under penalty of perjury.

(b) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2030, and as of that date is repealed.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2024, Ch. 484, Sec. 45. (SB 1454) Effective January 1, 2025. Repealed as of January 1, 2030, by its own provisions.)

article: 4. Licenses


text:
(a) The director may refuse to issue a license to an applicant pending final disposition of an investigation of criminal activity or of a disciplinary action previously filed against the person or applicant or against a qualified manager, partner, member, manager, or officer of the applicant.

(b) A new alarm company operator license, qualified manager certificate, or alarm agent registration shall be subject to payment of any and all fines assessed pursuant to this section and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of this section and payment of all applicable fees.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2015, Ch. 140, Sec. 7) by Stats. 2018, Ch. 406, Sec. 13. (SB 904) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: The chief shall issue a pocket identification card to the owner; any partner, officer, member, or manager active in the licensed business; and qualified manager. The chief shall determine the form and content of the card.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 25. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: The director shall issue a license, the form and content of which shall be determined in accordance with Section 164. In addition, the director shall issue a “Certificate of Licensure” to any licensee, upon request, with the fee prescribed in this chapter. A “certificate of licensure” shall include an embossed seal of the State of California and the signature of the chief or his or her designated representative.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1982, Ch. 1210, Sec. 12.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: Each alarm company operator license, together with the current renewal certificate, if any, shall at all times be conspicuously displayed at the place of business for which the license is issued.

article: 4. Licenses


text: An alarm company operator license issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. To renew an unexpired license or certificate, the licensee shall apply for renewal on a form prescribed by the director, pay all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section, and pay the renewal fee. On renewal, evidence of renewal of the license or certificate that the director may prescribe shall be issued to the licensee. The bureau shall send to each licensee a notice of renewal at least 45 calendar days prior to the expiration of each license.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 573, Sec. 39. (SB 800) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: An alarm company operator’s license not renewed within three years following its expiration may not be renewed thereafter. Renewal of the license within one year, or issuance of an original license thereafter, shall be subject to payment of any and all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section and payment of all applicable fees.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1998, Ch. 970, Sec. 19.5. Effective January 1, 1999.)

article: 4. Licenses


text: A suspended alarm company operator license is subject to expiration and shall be renewed as provided in this article, but renewal of the license does not entitle the licensee, while the license remains suspended and until it is reinstated, to engage in the licensed activity, or in any other activity or conduct in violation of the order or judgment by which the license was suspended.

article: 4. Licenses


text: An alarm company operator whose license has been canceled pursuant to this article, may obtain a new license only upon compliance with all of the provisions of this chapter relating to the issuance of an initial license.

article: 4. Licenses


text:
(a) Except as provided in this section, an alarm company operator license issued under this chapter is not assignable.

(b) An alarm company operator may apply to the chief for consent and, upon receipt of the consent and payment of the processing fee authorized by Section 7599.70, may assign a license to another business entity as long as the direct and indirect owners of the assignor own all of the assignee immediately after the assignment.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2012, Ch. 291, Sec. 16. (SB 1077) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 4. Licenses


text:
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the director may, in his or her sole discretion, grant a probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit to an applicant subject to terms and conditions deemed appropriate by the director, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) Continuing medical, psychiatric, or psychological treatment.

(2) Ongoing participation in a specified rehabilitation program.

(3) Abstention from the use of alcohol or drugs.

(4) Compliance with all provisions of this chapter.

(b) (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, and for purposes of this section, when deciding whether to grant a probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit, the director shall request that an applicant with a dismissed conviction provide proof of that dismissal and shall give special consideration to applicants whose convictions have been dismissed pursuant to Section 1203.4 or 1203.4a of the Penal Code.

(2) The director shall also take into account and consider any other reasonable documents or individual character references provided by the applicant that may serve as evidence of rehabilitation as deemed appropriate by the director.

(c) The director may modify or terminate the terms and conditions imposed on the probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit upon receipt of a petition from the applicant or licensee, certificate holder, registrant, or permitholder.

(d) For purposes of granting a probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit to qualified new applicants, the director shall develop standard terms of probation that shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) A three-year limit on the individual probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit.

(2) A process to obtain a standard license, certificate, registration, or permit for applicants who were issued a probationary license, certificate, registration, or permit.

(3) Supervision requirements.

(4) Compliance and quarterly reporting requirements.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2012, Ch. 291, Sec. 17. (SB 1077) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 4. Licenses


citation: BPC § 7594

text:
A licensee desiring to operate an alarm company operator business under one or more fictitious trade names shall apply and qualify for an initial license for each fictitious trade name.

No licensee shall indicate, or cause to be indicated, in any printed matter, or in any directory or listing, that he or she conducts an alarm company operator business under any name, other than the name for which he or she is licensed.

An application for a license for an additional trade name shall be in the same form and the applicant shall meet the same requirements as for an initial license.

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text: A licensee desiring to operate an alarm company operator business at a location other than the principal place of business as shown on the license shall apply for a branch office registration for each additional location as set forth in this chapter.

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text: Every licensed business, including registered branch offices, shall be under the active charge of a qualified manager. Every licensed registered branch office shall be managed by a designated branch office manager as set forth in this chapter.

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text:
(a) Whenever a qualified manager ceases to be in active charge of the business, the license shall be automatically suspended within 30 days unless the licensee notifies the bureau within the 30-day period of such cessation.

(b) Whenever a designated branch office manager ceases management of a registered branch office, the branch office registration shall be automatically suspended within 30 days unless the qualified manager notifies the bureau within the 30-day period of such cessation.

(c) If the notice of cessation is filed timely, the license or branch office registration shall remain in force for a period of 90 days after cessation or for an additional period, not to exceed one year, as specified by the director. After the 90-day period or additional period, as approved by the director, the license or branch office registration shall be automatically suspended, unless the bureau receives written notification that the license is under the active charge of a qualified manager or that a branch office manager has been designated.

A license or branch office registration suspended under this section may be reinstated only upon the filing of an application for reinstatement, payment of the reinstatement fee, and the qualification of a manager as provided by this chapter.

A person who performs any act for which an alarm company operator license is required during the period of a suspension is subject to the penal provisions of Article 3 (commencing with Section 7592), in addition to any other provisions of this chapter.

(d) In case of the death of a person licensed as an individual, a member of the immediate family of the deceased licensee shall be entitled to continue the business under the same license for 120 days following the death of the licensee, provided that written notification is made to the bureau within 30 days following the death of the licensee. At the end of the 120-day period, the license shall be automatically canceled. If no request is received within the 30-day period, the license shall be automatically canceled at the end of that period.

(e) In the case of the death or disassociation of a partner of an entity licensed as a partnership, the licensee shall notify the bureau, in writing, within 30 days from the death or disassociation of the individual. If notice is given, the license shall remain in force for 90 days following the death or disassociation. At the end of such period the license shall be automatically canceled. If the licensee fails to notify the bureau within the 30-day period, the license shall be automatically canceled.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 43.)

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text: Except as herein otherwise provided, no individual shall be in active charge of the business if the individual has ever had a license revoked for cause or has ever been disqualified from further employment in the alarm company operator business pursuant to this chapter, or was a qualified manager, partner, member, manager, or officer of a business whose license has been revoked.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2015, Ch. 140, Sec. 11) by Stats. 2018, Ch. 406, Sec. 17. (SB 904) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text:
(a) The business of each licensee shall be operated under the active direction, control, charge, or management, in this state, of the licensee, if he or she is qualified, or the person who is qualified and certified to act as the licensee’s qualified manager, if the licensee is not qualified.

(b) The individual deemed to be actively in charge of the business shall be the qualified manager, as defined in this chapter, and the certificate of the qualified manager shall be prominently displayed below the alarm company operator’s license. The individual shall share equally with the licensee the responsibility for compliance with this chapter.

(c) The director may assess fines for any violations as enumerated in this article, pursuant to Section 7591.9. Fines may be assessed against an alarm company operator’s license or a qualified manager’s certificate, or both, as deemed appropriate by the director.

(d) Assessment of the administrative fines shall be independent of any other action by the bureau or any local, state, or federal governmental agency which may result from a violation of this article.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 406, Sec. 19. (SB 904) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


text: The designated branch office manager shall spend an average of 51 percent of the usual business hours in the conduct of the business at the registered branch office location under the active management and supervision of the qualified manager.

article: 5. Licensed and Registered Locations


citation: BPC § 7596

text:
(a) Every person licensed, registered, or designated under this chapter, who in the course of their employment carries a firearm, shall complete a course of training in the carrying and use of firearms and shall receive a firearms qualification card prior to the carrying of such a firearm and shall complete a course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force. A registration card issued by the bureau pursuant to Section 7598.14 may also serve as a firearms qualification card if so indicated on the face of the card.

(b) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

history: (History: Amended (as added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 697, Sec. 24) by Stats. 2022, Ch. 287, Sec. 45. (AB 2515) Effective January 1, 2023. Operative July 1, 2023, by its own provisions.)

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 6. Firearms Permits and Permits for Other Deadly and Nonlethal Weapons


text:
The director shall issue a firearms permit when all of the following conditions exist:

(a) The applicant is a licensee, a qualified manager of a licensee, a designated branch office manager of a licensee, or a registered alarm agent. A firearms permit may only be associated with the following:

(1) A sole owner of a sole ownership licensee.

(2) A partner of a partnership licensee.

(3) A qualified manager of a licensee.

(4) A designated branch office manager of a licensee.

(5) A registered alarm agent.

(b) The applicant has filed with the bureau a classifiable fingerprint card, a completed application for a firearms permit on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct. In lieu of a classifiable fingerprint card, the applicant may submit fingerprints into an electronic fingerprinting system administered by the Department of Justice. An applicant who submits their fingerprints by electronic means shall have their fingerprints entered into the system through a terminal operated by a law enforcement agency or other facility authorized by the Department of Justice to conduct electronic fingerprinting. The terminal operator may charge a fee sufficient to reimburse it for the costs incurred in providing this service.

(c) (1) A bureau-certified firearms training instructor certifies that the applicant has successfully completed a written examination prepared by the bureau and a training course in the carrying and use of firearms approved by the bureau.

(2) An applicant who is a bureau-certified firearms training instructor is prohibited from self-certifying as having successfully carried out the requirement of paragraph (1) and shall instead carry out the requirements under another bureau-certified firearms training instructor.

(d) The applicant has provided the bureau with evidence that the applicant has completed a course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force.

(e) The applicant is at least 21 years of age and the bureau has determined, after investigation, that the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant, in the course of their duties, presents no apparent threat to the public safety, or the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant is not in violation of the Penal Code.

(f) The applicant has produced evidence to the firearm training facility that the applicant is a citizen of the United States or has permanent legal immigration status in the United States. Evidence of citizenship or permanent legal immigration status shall be that deemed sufficient by the bureau to ensure compliance with federal laws prohibiting possession of firearms by persons unlawfully in the United States and may include, but not be limited to, Department of Justice, Immigration and Naturalization Service Form I-151 or United States Citizenship and Immigration Services Form I-551 (Permanent Resident Card), naturalization documents, or birth certificates evidencing lawful residence or status in the United States.

(g) The application is accompanied by the fee prescribed in this chapter.

(h) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

history: (History: Amended (as added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 697, Sec. 26.5) by Stats. 2022, Ch. 287, Sec. 47. (AB 2515) Effective January 1, 2023. Operative July 1, 2023, by its own provisions.)

article: 6. Firearms Permits and Permits for Other Deadly and Nonlethal Weapons


text:
(a) (1) If a firearms permit is denied, the denial of the permit shall be in writing and shall describe the basis for the denial. The denial shall inform the applicant that if he or she desires a review by the Alarm Company Operator Disciplinary Review Committee, the review shall be requested within 30 days of the issuance of the denial.

(2) A review or hearing shall be held pursuant to Section 7591.19. However, no review or hearing shall be granted to an individual who is otherwise prohibited by law from carrying a firearm.

(b) (1) If a firearms permit is denied on the basis of the results of an assessment required for a permit associated with a security guard registration pursuant to Section 7583.47, the denial shall be in writing and shall describe the basis for the denial. The denial shall inform the applicant that if he or she desires to contest the denial, the applicant shall request a hearing within 30 days of the issuance of the denial.

(2) Appeals of denials pursuant to this subdivision shall be in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 561, Sec. 5. (AB 1516) Effective January 1, 2018.)


text:
(a) The firearms qualification card shall be mailed to the applicant at the address that appears on the application.

(b) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.

history: (History: Repealed (in Sec. 50) and added by Stats. 2017, Ch. 429, Sec. 51. (SB 547) Effective January 1, 2018. Section operative July 1, 2018, by its own provisions.)


text: A firearms qualification card does not authorize the holder thereof to carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner pursuant to Section 26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215 of the Penal Code.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2010, Ch. 178, Sec. 10. (SB 1115) Effective January 1, 2011. Operative January 1, 2012, by Sec. 107 of Ch. 178.)


text:
A firearms qualification card expires two years from the date of issuance, if not renewed. A person who wishes to renew a firearms qualification card shall file an application for renewal at least 60 days prior to the card’s expiration. A person whose card has expired shall not carry a firearm until the person has been issued a renewal card by the bureau.

The director shall not renew a firearms qualification card unless all of the following conditions exist:

(a) The cardholder has filed with the bureau a completed application for renewal of a firearms qualification card, on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury certifying that the information on the application is true and correct.

(b) The application is accompanied by a firearms requalification fee as prescribed in this chapter.

(c) (1) The applicant has requalified on the range and has successfully passed a written examination based on course content as specified in the firearms training manual approved by the department and taught at a training facility approved by the bureau.

(2) An applicant who is a bureau-certified firearms training instructor is prohibited from self-certifying as having successfully carried out the requirements of paragraph (1) and shall instead carry out the requirements under another bureau-certified firearms training instructor.

(d) The applicant has produced evidence to the firearm training facility, either upon receiving an original qualification card or upon filing for renewal of that card, that the applicant is a citizen of the United States or has permanent legal immigration status in the United States. Evidence of citizenship or permanent legal immigration status is that deemed sufficient by the bureau to ensure compliance with federal laws prohibiting possession of firearms by persons unlawfully in the United States and may include, but not be limited to, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services Form I-551 (Permanent Resident Card), naturalization documents, or birth certificates evidencing lawful residence or status in the United States.

(e) An expired firearms qualification card may not be renewed. A person with an expired firearms qualification card is required to apply for a new card in the manner required of persons not previously registered. A person whose card has expired shall not carry a firearm until the person has been issued a new firearms qualification card by the bureau.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 27. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)


text:
(a) The bureau shall not issue a firearm permit if the applicant is prohibited from possessing, receiving, owning, or purchasing a firearm pursuant to state or federal law.

(b) Before issuing an initial firearm permit the bureau shall provide the Department of Justice with the name, address, social security number, and fingerprints of the applicant.

(c) The Department of Justice shall inform the bureau, within 60 days from receipt of the information specified in subdivision (b), of the applicant’s eligibility to possess, receive, purchase, or own a firearm pursuant to state and federal law.

(d) An applicant who has been denied a firearm permit based upon subdivision (a) may reapply for the permit after the prohibition expires. The bureau shall treat this application as an initial application and shall follow the required screening process as specified in this section.

(e) The bureau shall not issue a firearm permit pursuant to this chapter to an applicant who, within the past 12 months, has been found incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control, for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of his or her duties, pursuant to the assessment required under Section 7583.47 for a permit associated with a security guard registration.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 50. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


text: Every person licensed, registered, or designated under this chapter, who in the course of his or her employment carries tear gas, or any other nonlethal chemical agent, shall complete the course required pursuant to Section 22835 of the Penal Code.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2010, Ch. 178, Sec. 11. (SB 1115) Effective January 1, 2011. Operative January 1, 2012, by Sec. 107 of Ch. 178.)


text: A licensee shall not permit any employee to carry tear gas, or any other nonlethal chemical agent, prior to ascertaining that the employee is proficient in the use of tear gas or other nonlethal chemical agent. Evidence of proficiency shall include a certificate from a POST-approved or Department of Justice-approved training facility that the person is proficient in the use of tear gas or other nonlethal chemical agent.


text:
(a) The bureau shall not renew a firearm permit if the applicant is prohibited from possessing, receiving, purchasing, or owning a firearm pursuant to state or federal law.

(b) Before renewing a firearm permit, the bureau shall provide the Department of Justice with the information necessary to identify the renewal applicant.

(c) The Department of Justice shall inform the bureau, within 30 days of receipt of the information specified in subdivision (b), of the renewal applicant’s eligibility under state and federal law to possess, receive, purchase, or own a firearm.

(d) An applicant who is denied a firearm permit renewal based upon subdivision (a) may reapply for the permit after the prohibition expires. The bureau shall treat this as an initial application and shall follow the screening process specified in Section 7596.8.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2019, Ch. 377, Sec. 40. (SB 609) Effective January 1, 2020.)


text:
(a) The Department of Justice may charge the bureau a fee sufficient to reimburse the department’s costs for furnishing firearm eligibility information upon submission of the application for issuance or renewal of a firearm permit. The fee charged shall not exceed the actual costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service.

(b) The bureau shall collect the fee described in subdivision (a) for all initial and renewal applications for firearm permits.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1992, Ch. 1341, Sec. 7. Effective January 1, 1993.)


text:
(a) A firearm permit may be automatically revoked if at any time the Department of Justice notifies the bureau that the holder of the firearm permit is prohibited from possessing, receiving, or purchasing a firearm pursuant to state or federal law. Following the automatic revocation, an administrative hearing shall be provided upon written request to the bureau in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(b) The bureau may seek an emergency order pursuant to Article 13 (commencing with Section 11460.10) of Chapter 4.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code against the holder of the firearms permit if, after the bureau’s investigation relating to any of the following events, the bureau determines that the holder of the firearms permit presents an undue hazard to public safety that may result in substantial injury to another:

(1) Receipt of subsequent arrest information of an arrest for any of the following:

(A) Assault.

(B) Battery.

(C) Any use of force or violence on any person committed by the permitholder.

(2) A report from a bureau-approved firearms training facility or instructor made pursuant to Section 7585.18.

(3) A report from the permitholder’s employer or former employer that the permitholder may be a threat to public safety.

(4) A complaint filed by any member of the public that the permitholder may be a threat to public safety.

(5) If the permitholder has been determined incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control pursuant to the assessment required under Section 7583.47 for a permit associated with a security guard registration.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2024, Ch. 484, Sec. 46. (SB 1454) Effective January 1, 2025.)


citation: BPC § 7597

text: The director may assess fines as enumerated in this article pursuant to Section 7591.9. Assessment of administrative fines shall be independent of any other action by the bureau or any local, state, or federal governmental agency which may result from a violation of this article.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1982, Ch. 1210, Sec. 12.)

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 7. Prohibited Acts and Citations for Firearms and Nonlethal Weapons


text:
(a) A licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall not carry, use, or possess a loaded or unloaded firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment, whether or not it is serviceable or operative, unless he or she has in his or her possession a valid and current firearms qualification card issued to him or her by the bureau. The card shall be shown to any peace officer or bureau representative upon demand.

(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, or a federal qualified law enforcement officer, as defined in Section 926B of Title 18 of the United States Code, who meets all of the following:

(1) He or she has successfully completed a course of study in the use of firearms.

(2) He or she is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6 of the Penal Code.

(3) He or she has proof that he or she has applied to the bureau for a firearms qualification card.

(c) A fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) may be assessed for the first violation of this section and a fine of five hundred dollars ($500) for each subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 52. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)

article: 7. Prohibited Acts and Citations for Firearms and Nonlethal Weapons


text:
(a) A licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall not carry any inoperable, replica, or other simulated firearm.

(b) A violation of this section shall result in a fine of one hundred dollars ($100) for the first violation and a fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for each subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 53. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


text:
(a) No licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall use a firearm which is in violation of law, or in knowing violation of the standards for carrying and usage of firearms, as taught in the course of training in the carrying and use of firearms, including, but not limited to:

(1) Illegally using, carrying, or possessing a dangerous weapon.

(2) Brandishing a weapon.

(3) Drawing a weapon without proper cause.

(4) Provoking a shooting incident without cause.

(5) Carrying or using a firearm while on duty under the influence of alcohol or dangerous drugs.

(6) Carrying or using a firearm of a caliber for which a bureau firearms permit has not been issued.

(7) Carrying or using a firearm while performing duties not related to the qualifying license, certificate, or registration to which the bureau associated the firearms permit.

(b) A fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) and a suspension of the firearms permit for six months may be assessed for the first violation of this section and a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) and a suspension of the firearms permit for not more than one year for a subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 54. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


text:
(a) A licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall not carry or use tear gas or any other nonlethal chemical agent in the performance of his or her duties, unless he or she has in his or her possession proof of completion of a course in the carrying and use of tear gas or other nonlethal chemical agent.

(b) A fine of one hundred dollars ($100) may be assessed for the first violation of this section and a fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for each subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 55. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


text:
(a) A licensee, qualified manager, branch office manager, or alarm agent shall not carry a pistol, revolver, or other firearm capable of being concealed upon the person in a concealed manner unless one of the following circumstances apply:

(1) The person has been issued a permit to carry that firearm in a concealed manner by a local law enforcement agency pursuant to Section 26150, 26155, 26170, or 26215 of the Penal Code.

(2) The person is an honorably retired peace officer authorized to carry a concealed firearm pursuant to Section 25650 of the Penal Code or Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6 of the Penal Code.

(3) The person is a duly appointed peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who is authorized to carry a concealed firearm in the course and scope of his or her employment pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6 of the Penal Code.

(b) A fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) may be assessed for each violation of subdivision (a).

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 56. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


text:
(a) Every person entering the employ of a licensee, performing the function of an alarm agent who responds to alarm systems shall complete a course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force, prior to being assigned to a duty location responding to an alarm system.

(b) Evidence of completion shall consist of certification by the licensee or instructor that the course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force has been taught, the date the course was taught, and certification by the employee that the instruction was received. Evidence of completion of the course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force shall be maintained in the licensee’s employee records and made available to the bureau upon request.

(c) A qualified manager is not required to register under this article.

(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

history: (History: Amended (as added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 697, Sec. 28) by Stats. 2022, Ch. 287, Sec. 49. (AB 2515) Effective January 1, 2023. Operative July 1, 2023, by its own provisions.)

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 8. Powers to Arrest and Registration of Employees


text:
(a) The course of training in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force may be administered, tested, and certified by any licensee. The department may approve any person or school to teach the course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force. The course of training shall be approximately four hours in length and cover the following topics:

(1) Responsibilities and ethics in citizen arrest.

(2) Relationship with the public police in arrest.

(3) Limitations on security guard power to arrest.

(4) Restrictions on searches and seizures.

(5) Criminal and civil liabilities.

(A) Personal liability.

(B) Employer liability.

(6) The appropriate use of force, including all of the following topics:

(A) Legal standards for use of force.

(B) Duty to intercede.

(C) The use of objectively reasonable force.

(D) Supervisory responsibilities.

(E) Use of force review and analysis.

(F) De-escalation and interpersonal communication training, including tactical methods that use time, distance, cover, and concealment, to avoid escalating situations that lead to violence.

(G) Implicit and explicit bias and cultural competency.

(H) Skills, including de-escalation techniques, to effectively, safely, and respectfully interact with people with disabilities or behavioral health issues.

(I) Use of force scenario training, including simulations of low-frequency, high-risk situations and calls for service, shoot-or-don’t-shoot situations, and real-time force option decisionmaking.

(J) Mental health and policing, including bias and stigma.

(K) Active shooter situations.

(7) Any other topic deemed appropriate by the bureau, excluding Weapons of Mass Destruction and Terrorism Awareness, which may be an elective topic only.

(b) Paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) shall be conducted through traditional classroom instruction. For the purposes of this subdivision, “traditional classroom instruction” means instruction where the instructor is physically present with students in a classroom and is available to answer students’ questions while providing the required training. In this setting, the instructor provides demonstrations and hands-on instruction in order to establish each student’s proficiency as to the course content.

(c) The department shall make available a guidebook as a standard for teaching the course in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force. The department shall encourage additional training and may provide a training guide recommending additional courses.

(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 241, Sec. 2. (SB 857) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 8. Powers to Arrest and Registration of Employees


text:
(a) No employee of a licensee performing the function of an alarm agent who responds to alarm systems shall be issued a firearms qualification card until proper certification by the instructor that the course of training in the exercise of the power to arrest and the appropriate use of force has been taught, and the employee’s certification that the instruction was received, has been delivered to the department.

(b) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2023.

history: (History: Amended (as added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 697, Sec. 32) by Stats. 2022, Ch. 287, Sec. 53. (AB 2515) Effective January 1, 2023. Operative July 1, 2023, by its own provisions.)


text:
(a) Within three working days after commencing employment, any employee performing the function of alarm agent, who is not currently registered with the bureau, shall submit to the bureau a completed application for registration, two classifiable fingerprint cards, one set of which shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a background check, and the appropriate registration fee. All information obtained on the application shall be confidential pursuant to the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1798) of Title 1.8 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code) and shall not be released to the public except for the registrant’s full name, the employer’s name and address, and the registration number. Nothing in this section shall preclude the release of information to the public regarding the status of a registrant, or the release of information to law enforcement agencies or other governmental agencies for other authorized purposes.

(b) No application is required to be submitted if the employee terminated employment within the three working days. “Within three working days” means 72 hours from the time an employee is first compensated for alarm agent services by a licensee.

(c) The bureau may impose a fee not to exceed three dollars ($3) for processing classifiable fingerprint cards submitted by applicants, excluding those submitted into an electronic fingerprint system using electronic fingerprint technology.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1999, Ch. 318, Sec. 9. Effective January 1, 2000.)


text: The application for registration under this article shall be on a form prescribed by the director and shall be accompanied by the fee as prescribed in this chapter.


text:
The application shall be verified and shall include the following:

(a) The full name, residence address, telephone number, and date of birth of the employee.

(b) The name, address, telephone number, and license number of the employer and the date the employment commenced.

(c) A statement as to whether the employee has been convicted of a misdemeanor, excluding minor traffic violations.

(d) A statement as to whether the employee has been convicted of a felony.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 46.)


text:
(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), an employee of a licensee may be assigned to work with a temporary application for registration until the bureau issues a registration card or denies the application for registration. A temporary application for registration shall be a copy of the initial application. Any alarm agent employee assigned to work must carry either a temporary application for registration or a valid registration. A temporary application for registration shall in no event be valid for more than 120 days. However, the director may extend the expiration date beyond the 120 days if there is an abnormal delay in processing applications for registration. For purposes of this section, the 120-day period shall commence on the date the applicant signs and submits the application.

(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), an employee who has been convicted of a crime prior to applying for registration shall not be issued a temporary application for registration and shall not be assigned to work as an alarm agent until the bureau issues a permanent registration card. This subdivision shall apply only if the applicant for registration has disclosed the conviction to the bureau on his or her application form, or if the fact of the conviction has come to the attention of the bureau through official court or other governmental documents.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1998, Ch. 970, Sec. 20. Effective January 1, 1999.)


text: No employee of a licensee shall carry or use a firearm unless the employee has in his or her possession a valid alarm agent registration card and a valid firearm qualification card issued pursuant to this chapter.


text:
The bureau, upon receipt of a criminal offense record or record of a subsequent arrest from the California Department of Justice, shall make an immediate determination of fitness for registration of applicants for registration or firearms qualification permit, when information contained in the records of the Department of Justice makes such a determination possible. Applications for registration of those determined to be unfit shall be immediately denied.

The bureau shall keep a current and accurate record of the individuals who have applied for and been denied registration or firearms qualification permits. A listing consisting of individual names and other pertinent identifying information may be made of those individuals who have been denied. The listing may be updated bimonthly and made available to interested licensees and law enforcement agencies.


text:
If the chief determines that an applicant’s criminal history contains arrest information for which there appears no disposition, the chief shall issue a notice to the applicant allowing the applicant 45 days for the applicant to provide documentation concerning the disposition of the arrest or arrests.

The notice shall be sent to the applicant and shall provide sufficient information to assist the applicant in complying with the chief’s request. If the applicant fails to respond within 45 days, the applicant’s employment shall be automatically suspended until the bureau obtains the necessary documentation to approve or deny the application.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1984, Ch. 1299, Sec. 32.)


text:
If the director determines that continued employment of an applicant or registrant, in his or her current capacity, may present an undue hazard to public safety, the licensee, upon proper notification from the director, shall suspend the applicant or registrant from employment in that capacity.

A registrant or applicant may request a review by the Alarm Company Disciplinary Review Committee as set forth in Section 7591.19 to appeal the suspension.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1984, Ch. 1299, Sec. 33.)


text: Upon approval of an application for registration, the chief shall cause to be issued to the applicant, at their last known address, a registration card in a form approved by the director. The applicant may request to be issued an enhanced pocket card that shall be composed of a durable material and may incorporate technologically advanced security features. The bureau may charge a fee sufficient to reimburse the department’s costs for furnishing the enhanced license. The fee charged may not exceed the actual costs for system development, maintenance, and processing necessary to provide this service, and may not exceed six dollars ($6). If the applicant does not request an enhanced card, the department shall issue a standard card at no cost to the applicant. Every person, while engaged in any activity for which registration is required, shall display their valid pocket card as provided by regulation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 28. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)


text: A licensee shall at all times be responsible for ascertaining that his or her employees subject to registration are currently registered or have made proper application for registration as provided in this article. The licensee may not have in his or her employment a person whose registration has expired, or been revoked, denied, suspended, or canceled.


text:
(a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration of a registration, a registrant who desires to renew his or her registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal of registration.

(c) An expired registration may be renewed provided the registrant files a renewal application on a form prescribed by the director and the renewal and delinquency fees prescribed by this chapter are returned to the bureau within 60 days of the expiration date of the registration. A firearms permit is not valid while the registration is expired.

(d) A registration not renewed within 60 days following its expiration may not be renewed thereafter. The holder of the expired registration may obtain a new registration only on compliance with all of the provisions of this chapter relating to the issuance of an original registration. The delinquency fee is 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of expiration, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25).

(e) The holder of an expired registration shall not engage in the activity for which a registration is required until the bureau issues a renewal registration.

(f) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant, prior to the date of expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration, for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(g) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated until all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(h) A new registration shall be issued subject to payment of all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of Section 7591.9 and payment of all applicable fees.

(i) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2018, and, as of January 1, 2019, is repealed.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 573, Sec. 40.5. (SB 800) Effective January 1, 2018. Inoperative July 1, 2018. Repealed as of January 1, 2019, by its own provisions. See later operative version added by Stats. 2017, Ch. 429.)


text:
(a) A registration issued under this chapter expires at midnight on the last day of the month two years following the date of issuance unless renewed. At least 60 days prior to the expiration of a registration, a registrant who desires to renew his or her registration shall forward to the bureau a completed registration renewal application and renewal fee. The renewal application shall be on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct.

(b) The licensee shall provide to any employee information regarding procedures for renewal of registration.

(c) An expired registration may be renewed provided the registrant files a renewal application on a form prescribed by the director and the renewal and delinquency fees prescribed by this chapter are returned to the bureau within 60 days of the expiration date of the registration. A firearms permit is not valid while the registration is expired.

(d) A registration not renewed within 60 days following its expiration may not be renewed thereafter. The holder of the expired registration may obtain a new registration only on compliance with all of the provisions of this chapter relating to the issuance of an original registration.

(e) The holder of an expired registration shall not engage in the activity for which a registration is required until the bureau issues a renewal registration.

(f) If the renewed registration card has not been delivered to the registrant prior to the date of expiration of the prior registration, the registrant may present evidence of renewal to substantiate continued registration, for a period not to exceed 90 days after the date of expiration.

(g) A registration may not be renewed or reinstated until all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of that section have been paid.

(h) A new registration shall be issued subject to payment of all fines assessed pursuant to Section 7591.9 and not resolved in accordance with the provisions of Section 7591.9 and payment of all applicable fees.

(i) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.

history: (History: Repealed (in Ch. 573) and added by Stats. 2017, Ch. 429, Sec. 55.5. (SB 547) Effective January 1, 2018. Section operative July 1, 2018, by its own provisions.)


text: The director may assess fines as enumerated in this article pursuant to Section 7591.9. Assessment of administrative fines shall be independent of any other action by the bureau, or any local, state, or federal governmental agency, which may result from a violation of this article.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1982, Ch. 1210, Sec. 12.)

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 9. Prohibited Acts and Citations for Registered Employees


text:
(a) (1) An alarm agent shall carry on their person, while on duty, either a valid and current registration card or a temporary application for registration and a valid photo identification. The registration card or temporary application may be in a digital format.

(2) The temporary application shall include the application number that is assigned at the time that the application is received.

(b) For purposes of this section, “digital format” shall include, but not be limited to, an easily legible screenshot or image of the registration card or temporary application.

(c) A fine of one hundred fifty dollars ($150) may be assessed for each violation of subdivision (a).

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 29. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)

article: 9. Prohibited Acts and Citations for Registered Employees


text: An alarm agent who responds to an alarm system shall wear a prominently displayed patch or other designation which clearly identifies the name of the licensee. An alarm agent who carries a deadly weapon while responding to an alarm system shall wear a recognizable uniform with a prominently displayed patch or other designation which clearly identifies the name of the licensee. The uniform must be distinguishable from the uniforms worn by local regular law enforcement officers. A violation of this section may result in a fine of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for each violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 58. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)


citation: BPC § 7599

text:
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, an applicant for a qualified manager certificate for an alarm company operator license shall:

(a) Have had at least two years’ experience in alarm company work or the equivalent thereof as determined by the director.

A year’s experience shall consist of not less than 2,000 hours of actual compensated alarm company work performed by each applicant preceding the filing of an application.

Applicants shall substantiate the claimed years and hours of qualifying experience and the exact details as to the character and nature thereof by written certifications from employers on forms prescribed by the director, subject to independent verification by the director as they may determine. In the event the applicant is unable to supply a written certification from an employer, the applicant may offer such other written certifications as may be properly considered by the director. In addition, applicants shall supply such evidence for consideration, as may be required by the director.

(b) Be at least 18 years of age.

(c) Complete and forward to the bureau an application for a qualified manager certificate for an alarm company operator license, which shall be on a form prescribed by the director. The application shall be accompanied by two classifiable sets of the applicant’s fingerprints.

(d) Pass the required examination.

(e) Pay the required application and examination fees to the chief.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 376, Sec. 30. (AB 830) Effective January 1, 2022.)

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 10. Alarm Company Operators—Qualifications and Examination


text: The director shall issue a qualified manager certificate to any person meeting the requirements of Section 7599. The certificate shall be posted, along with the alarm company operator license, in a conspicuous place at the principal place of business.

article: 10. Alarm Company Operators—Qualifications and Examination


text: Examinations shall be given at least once every other month at such places and on such specific dates as the director may from time to time determine and fix.


text: In order to be eligible for an initial examination, an applicant shall have completed and filed his or her application together with the application fee prescribed by this chapter in the office of the bureau in Sacramento, California, and have his or her experience independently verified by the bureau, not later than 30 days prior to the next scheduled examination date. Applicants shall not be scheduled until a thorough investigation has been concluded by the bureau. Applicants whose applications are not completed and filed within the time limits of this section may, at the discretion of the director, be scheduled for the next scheduled examination.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1985, Ch. 876, Sec. 48.)


text: If an applicant fails to pass an initial examination or fails to appear as scheduled for an examination, he or she shall not be eligible for any subsequent examination except upon payment of the reexamination fee for each subsequent examination, accompanied by a completed application for reexamination duly filed within the time limits and conditions relating to applications for original examinations provided in Section 7599.6.


text: All applicants shall be examined concerning their competency, experience, and qualifications by the chief. The chief may take testimony of anyone in regard thereto under oath.


text: If an applicant fails to complete his or her application within one year after it has been filed, or fails to take the examination within a one-year period after becoming eligible therefor, the application shall be considered to be abandoned. An application submitted subsequent to the abandonment of a former application shall be treated as a new application.


text: Every qualified manager certificate issued under this chapter shall be subject to the same renewal provisions which apply to an alarm company operator license as set forth in Sections 7593.11, 7593.12, 7593.13, and 7593.14.


text:
For purposes of this article, “branch office” means any additional location, other than the alarm company operator’s principal place of business, where the selling, monitoring, installation, or servicing of alarms is administered, directed, or controlled.

A telephone answering service or a telephone call forwarding device shall not be deemed to be a branch office.

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 11. Alarm Company Operators—Licensed and Registered Locations


text: Any licensed alarm company operator, who maintains or proposes to maintain a branch office as defined in this article, shall apply and qualify for a branch office registration.

article: 11. Alarm Company Operators—Licensed and Registered Locations


text: The application for a branch office registration under this article shall be on a form prescribed by the director and shall be accompanied by the fee as set forth in this chapter.


text:
The application shall include:

(a) The full name, address of the licensed location, telephone number at the licensed location, the name of the qualified manager, and license number of the applicant.

(b) The name and registration number of the designated branch office manager. The individual shall:

(1) Be at least 18 years of age.

(2) Be currently registered as an alarm agent.

(3) Read the Alarm Company Act and sign a statement declaring that he or she has read the act. The statement shall be dated, signed by the qualified manager, maintained in the licensee’s employee records and made available to the bureau upon request.

(c) The address of the branch office and the telephone number at the branch office.

(d) The signature of the qualified manager.


text: Upon receipt of the application for a branch office registration, the chief shall issue a “Branch Office Registration.” The registration shall be posted in a conspicuous place at the branch office location.


text: Each branch office registration shall be managed and supervised by a designated branch office manager. However, each registered branch office and designated branch office manager shall be under the active management supervision of the qualified manager of the licensee. A branch office may be managed for 120 days from the date of initial application for registration under the direction of the qualified manager of the licensee.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1989, Ch. 1104, Sec. 36.)


text: Every branch office registration issued under this chapter shall be subject to the same renewal provisions which apply to a license as set forth in Sections 7593.11, 7593.12, 7593.13, and 7593.14.


text:
The director may assess fines for any violation as enumerated in this article, pursuant to Section 7591.9.

Assessment of administrative fines shall be independent of any other action by the bureau or any local, state, or federal governmental agency which may result from a violation of this article.

path: 3. PROFESSIONS AND VOCATIONS GENERALLY > 11.6. Alarm Companies > 12. Alarm Company Operators—Conduct of Business, Prohibited Acts and Citations


text: For purposes of this article, “licensee” means an alarm company operator. A licensee shall at all times be responsible for those actions of his or her employees, including his or her qualified manager, performed in violation of this chapter, when acting within the course and scope of his or her employment.

article: 12. Alarm Company Operators—Conduct of Business, Prohibited Acts and Citations


text:
(a) A licensee shall notify the bureau within 30 days of any change of its officers, members, or managers required to be named pursuant to Section 7593.4 or 7593.5 and of any addition of a new partner.

(b) Applications, on forms prescribed by the director, shall be submitted by all new officers, members, managers, and partners. The director may suspend or revoke a license issued under this chapter if the director determines that the new officer, member, manager, or partner has committed any act which constitutes grounds for the denial of a license pursuant to Section 7591.10.

(c) A notice of warning may be issued for the first violation of this section and a fine of five hundred dollars ($500) for each subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended (as amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 59) by Stats. 2018, Ch. 406, Sec. 20. (SB 904) Effective January 1, 2019.)


text: A licensee shall not conduct business, as defined in Section 7599.20, from any location other than that location for which a license or branch office registration was issued. A violation of this section may result in a fine of five hundred dollars ($500) for the first violation of this section and a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each subsequent violation.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 800, Sec. 61. (SB 1196) Effective January 1, 2017.)