citation: BPC § 2463

text:
Each member of the board, except the public members, shall be appointed from persons having all of the following qualifications:

(a) Be a citizen of this state for at least five years next preceding his or her appointment.

(b) Be a graduate of a recognized school or college of podiatric medicine.

(c) Have a valid certificate to practice podiatric medicine in this state.

(d) Have engaged in the practice of podiatric medicine in this state for at least five years next preceding his or her appointment.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 10.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


kind: section

code: BPC

citation: BPC § 2464

text:
The public members shall be appointed from persons having all of the following qualifications:

(a) Be a citizen of this state for at least five years next preceding his or her appointment.

(b) Shall not be an officer or faculty member of any college, school, or other institution engaged in podiatric medical instruction.

(c) Shall not be a licentiate of the board or of any board under this division or of any board created by an initiative act under this division.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 11.)

division: 2. HEALING ARTS

chapter: 5. Medicine

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5. Medicine > 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2465

text: No person who directly or indirectly owns any interest in any college, school, or other institution engaged in podiatric medical instruction shall be appointed to the board nor shall any incumbent member of the board have or acquire any interest, direct or indirect, in any such college, school, or institution.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 332, Sec. 14. (SB 1236) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2466

text: All members of the board shall be appointed for terms of four years. Vacancies shall immediately be filled by the appointing power for the unexpired portion of the terms in which they occur. No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than two consecutive terms.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2005, Ch. 621, Sec. 29. Effective January 1, 2006.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2467

text:
(a) The board may convene from time to time as it deems necessary.

(b) Four members of the board constitute a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting.

(c) It shall require the affirmative vote of a majority of those members present at a meeting, those members constituting at least a quorum, to pass any motion, resolution, or measure.

(d) The board shall elect from its members a president, a vice president, and a secretary who shall hold their respective positions at the pleasure of the board. The president may call meetings of the board and any duly appointed committee at a specified time and place.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2016, Ch. 489, Sec. 8. (SB 1478) Effective January 1, 2017.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2468

text: Notice of each meeting of the board shall be given in accordance with the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2000, Ch. 836, Sec. 15. Effective January 1, 2001.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2469

text: Each member of the board shall receive per diem and expenses as provided in Section 2016.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 16.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2470

text: The board may adopt, amend, or repeal, in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), regulations necessary to enable the board to carry into effect the provisions of law relating to the practice of podiatric medicine.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 194, Sec. 4. (AB 1501) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2471

text: Except as provided by Section 159.5, the board may employ, within the limits of the funds received by the board, all personnel necessary to carry out this chapter.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2007, Ch. 588, Sec. 32. Effective January 1, 2008.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2472

text:
(a) The certificate to practice podiatric medicine authorizes the holder to practice podiatric medicine.

(b) As used in this chapter, “podiatric medicine” means the diagnosis, medical, surgical, mechanical, manipulative, and electrical treatment of the human foot, including the ankle and tendons that insert into the foot and the nonsurgical treatment of the muscles and tendons of the leg governing the functions of the foot.

(c) A doctor of podiatric medicine shall not administer an anesthetic other than local. If an anesthetic other than local is required for any procedure, the anesthetic shall be administered by another licensed health care practitioner who is authorized to administer the required anesthetic within the scope of their practice.

(d) (1) A doctor of podiatric medicine may do the following:

(A) Perform surgical treatment of the ankle and tendons at the level of the ankle pursuant to subdivision (e).

(B) Perform services under the direct supervision of a physician and surgeon, as an assistant at surgery, in surgical procedures that are otherwise beyond the scope of practice of a doctor of podiatric medicine.

(C) Perform a partial amputation of the foot no further proximal than the Chopart’s joint.

(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit a doctor of podiatric medicine to function as a primary surgeon for any procedure beyond their scope of practice.

(e) A doctor of podiatric medicine may perform surgical treatment of the ankle and tendons at the level of the ankle only in the following locations:

(1) A licensed general acute care hospital, as defined in Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code.

(2) A licensed surgical clinic, as defined in Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code, if the doctor of podiatric medicine has surgical privileges, including the privilege to perform surgery on the ankle, in a general acute care hospital described in paragraph (1) and meets all the protocols of the surgical clinic.

(3) An ambulatory surgical center that is certified to participate in the Medicare Program under Title XVIII (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.) of the federal Social Security Act, if the doctor of podiatric medicine has surgical privileges, including the privilege to perform surgery on the ankle, in a general acute care hospital described in paragraph (1) and meets all the protocols of the surgical center.

(4) A freestanding physical plant housing outpatient services of a licensed general acute care hospital, as defined in Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, if the doctor of podiatric medicine has surgical privileges, including the privilege to perform surgery on the ankle, in a general acute care hospital described in paragraph (1). For purposes of this section, a “freestanding physical plant” means any building that is not physically attached to a building where inpatient services are provided.

(5) An outpatient setting accredited pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 1248.1 of the Health and Safety Code.

(f) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), a doctor of podiatric medicine with training or experience in wound care may treat ulcers resulting from local and systemic etiologies on the leg no further proximal than the tibial tubercle.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 194, Sec. 5. (AB 1501) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2473

text:
(a) A doctor of podiatric medicine may independently prescribe and administer influenza and COVID-19 vaccines, consistent with recommendations adopted pursuant to Section 120164 of the Health and Safety Code, to persons three years of age or older.

(b) In order to prescribe and administer a vaccine described in subdivision (a), a doctor of podiatric medicine shall do all of the following:

(1) Complete an immunization training program biennially that is either offered by the CDC or taken through a registered provider approved by the board that, at a minimum, includes vaccine administration, prevention and management of adverse reactions, and maintenance of vaccine records.

(2) Comply with all state and federal recordkeeping and reporting requirements, including providing documentation to the patient’s primary care provider, if applicable, and entering in the information in the appropriate immunization registry designated by the Immunization Branch of the State Department of Public Health.

(c) The board may adopt regulations to implement this section. The adoption, amendment, repeal, or readoption of a regulation authorized by this section is deemed to address an emergency, for purposes of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the board is hereby exempted for this purpose from the requirements of subdivision (b) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code. For purposes of subdivision (e) of Section 11346.1 of the Government Code, the 180-day period, as applicable to the effective period of an emergency regulatory action and submission of specified materials to the Office of Administrative Law, is hereby extended to 240 days.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 105, Sec. 6. (AB 144) Effective September 17, 2025.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2474

text:
(a) Any person who uses in any sign or in any advertisement or otherwise, the word or words “doctor of podiatric medicine,” “doctor of podiatry,” “podiatric doctor,” “podiatric surgeon,” “D.P.M.,” “podiatrist,” “foot specialist,” or any other term or terms or any letters indicating or implying that they are a doctor of podiatric medicine, or that they practice podiatric medicine, or hold themselves out as practicing podiatric medicine or foot correction as defined in Section 2472, without having at the time of so doing a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended certificate as provided for in this chapter, is guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b) It is the policy of this state that a doctor of podiatric medicine shall be classified or treated as a doctor of podiatric medicine and shall not be classified or treated as an ancillary provider or other allied health professional in any health care setting or insurance reimbursement structure for any purpose.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 194, Sec. 6. (AB 1501) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2475

text:
Unless otherwise provided by law, no postgraduate trainee, intern, resident postdoctoral fellow, or instructor may engage in the practice of podiatric medicine, or receive compensation therefor, or offer to engage in the practice of podiatric medicine unless he or she holds a valid, unrevoked, and unsuspended certificate to practice podiatric medicine issued by the board. However, a graduate of an approved college or school of podiatric medicine upon whom the degree doctor of podiatric medicine has been conferred, who is issued a resident’s license, which may be renewed annually for up to eight years for this purpose by the board, and who is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board, may engage in the practice of podiatric medicine whenever and wherever required as a part of that program and may receive compensation for that practice under the following conditions:

(a) A graduate with a resident’s license in an approved internship, residency, or fellowship program may participate in training rotations outside the scope of podiatric medicine, under the supervision of a physician and surgeon who holds a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy degree wherever and whenever required as a part of the training program, and may receive compensation for that practice. If the graduate fails to receive a license to practice podiatric medicine under this chapter within three years from the commencement of the postgraduate training, all privileges and exemptions under this section shall automatically cease.

(b) Hospitals functioning as a part of the teaching program of an approved college or school of podiatric medicine in this state may exchange instructors or resident or assistant resident doctors of podiatric medicine with another approved college or school of podiatric medicine not located in this state, or those hospitals may appoint a graduate of an approved school as such a resident for purposes of postgraduate training. Those instructors and residents may practice and be compensated as provided in this section, but that practice and compensation shall be for a period not to exceed two years.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 89. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text: Before a resident’s license may be issued, each applicant shall show by evidence satisfactory to the board, submitted directly to the board by the national score reporting institution, that he or she has, within the past 10 years, passed Parts I and II of the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States or has passed a written examination that is recognized by the board to be the equivalent in content to the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2004, Ch. 695, Sec. 14.2. Effective January 1, 2005.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text: As used in this article, “podiatric residency” means a program of supervised postgraduate clinical training, one year or more in duration, approved by the board.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 21.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text:
(a) The board shall approve podiatric residency programs, as defined in Section 2475.2, in the field of podiatric medicine, for persons who are applicants for or have been issued a certificate to practice podiatric medicine pursuant to this article.

(b) The board may only approve a podiatric residency that it determines meets all of the following requirements:

(1) Reasonably conforms with the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education’s Institutional Requirements of the Essentials of Accredited Residencies in Graduate Medical Education: Institutional and Program Requirements.

(2) Is approved by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education.

(3) Complies with the requirements of this state.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2003, Ch. 586, Sec. 1. Effective January 1, 2004.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2476

text: Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent a regularly matriculated student undertaking a course of professional instruction in an approved college or school of podiatric medicine from participating in training beyond the scope of podiatric medicine under the supervision of a physician and surgeon who holds a medical doctor or doctor of osteopathy degree whenever and wherever prescribed as part of his or her course of study.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1992, Ch. 1289, Sec. 11.4. Effective January 1, 1993.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2477

text: Nothing in this chapter prohibits the manufacture, the recommendation, or the sale of either corrective shoes or appliances for the human feet.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1980, Ch. 1313, Sec. 2.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2479

text: The board shall issue a certificate to practice podiatric medicine to each applicant who meets the requirements of this chapter. Every applicant for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine shall comply with the provisions of Article 4 (commencing with Section 2080) which are not specifically applicable to applicants for a physician’s and surgeon’s certificate, in addition to the provisions of this article.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 90. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2480

text: The board shall have full authority to investigate and to evaluate each applicant applying for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine and to make a determination of the admission of the applicant to the examination and the issuance of a certificate in accordance with the provisions and requirements of this chapter.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 24.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2481

text: Each applicant who commenced professional instruction in podiatric medicine after September 1, 1959, shall show by an official transcript or other official evidence submitted directly to the board by the academic institution that he or she has completed two years of preprofessional postsecondary education, or its equivalent, including the subjects of chemistry, biology or other biological science, and physics or mathematics, before completing the resident course of professional instruction.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2003, Ch. 586, Sec. 2. Effective January 1, 2004.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2483

text:
(a) Each applicant for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine shall show by an official transcript or other official evidence satisfactory to the board that is submitted directly to the board by the academic institution that he or she has successfully completed a medical curriculum extending over a period of at least four academic years, or 32 months of actual instruction, in a college or school of podiatric medicine approved by the board. The total number of hours of all courses shall consist of a minimum of 4,000 hours.

The board, by regulation, shall adopt standards for determining equivalent training authorized by this section.

(b) The curriculum for all applicants shall provide for adequate instruction related to podiatric medicine in the following:

Alcoholism and other chemical substance detection

Local anesthesia

Anatomy, including embryology, histology, and neuroanatomy

Behavioral science

Biochemistry

Biomechanics-foot and ankle

Child abuse detection

Dermatology

Geriatric medicine

Human sexuality

Infectious diseases

Medical ethics

Neurology

Orthopedic surgery

Pathology, microbiology, and immunology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology, including materia medica and toxicology

Physical and laboratory diagnosis

Physical medicine

Physiology

Podiatric medicine

Podiatric surgery

Preventive medicine, including nutrition

Psychiatric problem detection

Radiology and radiation safety

Spousal or partner abuse detection

Therapeutics

Women’s health

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2003, Ch. 586, Sec. 3. Effective January 1, 2004.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2484

text: In addition to any other requirements of this chapter, before a certificate to practice podiatric medicine may be issued, each applicant shall show by evidence satisfactory to the board, submitted directly to the board by the sponsoring institution, that he or she has satisfactorily completed at least two years of postgraduate podiatric medical and podiatric surgical training in a general acute care hospital approved by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 332, Sec. 18. (SB 1236) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2486

text:
The board shall issue a certificate to practice podiatric medicine if the applicant has submitted directly to the board from the credentialing organizations verification that he or she meets all of the following requirements:

(a) The applicant has graduated from an approved school or college of podiatric medicine and meets the requirements of Section 2483.

(b) The applicant, within the past 10 years, has passed parts I, II, and III of the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States or has passed a written examination that is recognized by the board to be the equivalent in content to the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States.

(c) The applicant has satisfactorily completed the postgraduate training required by Section 2484.

(d) The applicant has passed within the past 10 years any oral and practical examination that may be required of all applicants by the board to ascertain clinical competence.

(e) The applicant has committed no acts or crimes constituting grounds for denial of a certificate under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475).

(f) The board determines that no disciplinary action has been taken against the applicant by any podiatric licensing authority and that the applicant has not been the subject of adverse judgments or settlements resulting from the practice of podiatric medicine that the board determines constitutes evidence of a pattern of negligence or incompetence.

(g) A disciplinary databank report regarding the applicant is received by the board from the Federation of Podiatric Medical Boards.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 91. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2488

text:
The board shall issue a certificate to practice podiatric medicine by credentialing if the applicant has submitted directly to the board from the credentialing organizations verification that they are licensed as a doctor of podiatric medicine in any other state and meets all of the following requirements:

(a) The applicant has graduated from an approved school or college of podiatric medicine.

(b) The applicant has passed either part III of the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States or a written examination that is recognized by the board to be the equivalent in content to the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners of the United States.

(c) The applicant has satisfactorily completed a postgraduate training program approved by the Council on Podiatric Medical Education.

(d) The applicant has passed any oral and practical examination that may be required of all applicants by the board to ascertain clinical competence.

(e) The applicant has committed no acts or crimes constituting grounds for denial of a certificate under Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475).

(f) The board determines that no disciplinary action has been taken against the applicant by any podiatric licensing authority and that the applicant has not been the subject of adverse judgments or settlements resulting from the practice of podiatric medicine that the board determines constitutes evidence of a pattern of negligence or incompetence.

(g) A disciplinary databank report regarding the applicant is received by the board from the Federation of Podiatric Medical Boards.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 194, Sec. 7. (AB 1501) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2492

text:
(a) The board shall examine every applicant for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine to ensure a minimum of entry-level competence at the time and place designated by the board in its discretion, but at least twice a year.

(b) Unless the applicant meets the requirements of Section 2486, applicants shall be required to have taken and passed the examination administered by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners.

(c) The board may appoint qualified persons to give the whole or any portion of any examination as provided in this article, who shall be designated as examination commissioners. The board may fix the compensation of those persons subject to the provisions of applicable state laws and regulations.

(d) The provisions of Article 9 (commencing with Section 2170) shall apply to examinations administered by the board except where those provisions are in conflict with or inconsistent with the provisions of this article.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 93. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2493

text: An applicant for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine shall pass an examination in the subjects required by Section 2483 in order to ensure a minimum of entry-level competence.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 332, Sec. 19. (SB 1236) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2495

text: Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the board may delegate to officials of the board the authority to approve the admission of applicants to the examination and to approve the issuance of certificates to practice podiatric medicine to applicants who have met the specific requirements therefor in routine cases where applicants clearly meet the requirements of this chapter.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1986, Ch. 655, Sec. 33.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2496

text: In order to ensure the continuing competence of persons licensed to practice podiatric medicine, the board shall adopt and administer regulations requiring continuing education of those licensees.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2023, Ch. 122, Sec. 1. (AB 826) Effective January 1, 2024.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text: Any vaccine training program provided through the federal Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, including courses that were completed by a licensed doctor of podiatric medicine on or after January 4, 2021, pursuant to the Department of Consumer Affairs public health emergency order DCA-21-115, or any subsequent waivers that supersede this waiver, and Section 2473 shall count toward the fulfillment of the continuing education requirements governed by Section 2496.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 653, Sec. 5. (AB 526) Effective October 8, 2021.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2497

text:
(a) The board may order the denial of an application for, or the suspension of, or the revocation of, or the imposition of probationary conditions upon, a certificate to practice podiatric medicine for any of the causes set forth in Article 12 (commencing with Section 2220) in accordance with Section 2222.

(b) The board may hear all matters, including but not limited to, any contested case or may assign any such matters to an administrative law judge. The proceedings shall be held in accordance with Section 2230. If a contested case is heard by the board itself, the administrative law judge who presided at the hearing shall be present during the board’s consideration of the case and shall assist and advise the board.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1987, Ch. 1413, Sec. 4.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text:
(a) The board may request the administrative law judge, under his or her proposed decision in resolution of a disciplinary proceeding before the board, to direct any licensee found guilty of unprofessional conduct to pay to the board a sum not to exceed the actual and reasonable costs of the investigation and prosecution of the case.

(b) The costs to be assessed shall be fixed by the administrative law judge and shall not be increased by the board unless the board does not adopt a proposed decision and in making its own decision finds grounds for increasing the costs to be assessed, not to exceed the actual and reasonable costs of the investigation and prosecution of the case.

(c) When the payment directed in the board’s order for payment of costs is not made by the licensee, the board may enforce the order for payment by bringing an action in any appropriate court. This right of enforcement shall be in addition to any other rights the board may have as to any licensee directed to pay costs.

(d) In any judicial action for the recovery of costs, proof of the board’s decision shall be conclusive proof of the validity of the order of payment and the terms for payment.

(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), the board shall not renew or reinstate the license of any licensee who has failed to pay all of the costs ordered under this section.

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the board may, in its discretion, conditionally renew or reinstate for a maximum of one year the license of any licensee who demonstrates financial hardship and who enters into a formal agreement with the board to reimburse the board within that one-year period for those unpaid costs.

(f) All costs recovered under this section shall be deposited in the Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund as a reimbursement in either the fiscal year in which the costs are actually recovered or the previous fiscal year, as the board may direct.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 332, Sec. 21. (SB 1236) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2498

text:
(a) The board shall have the responsibility for reviewing the quality of podiatric medical practice carried out by persons licensed to practice podiatric medicine.

(b) Each member of the board, or any licensed doctor of podiatric medicine appointed by the board, shall additionally have the authority to inspect, or require reports from, a general or specialized hospital and the podiatric medical staff thereof, with respect to the podiatric medical care, services, or facilities provided therein, and may inspect podiatric medical patient records with respect to the care, services, or facilities. The authority to make inspections and to require reports as provided by this section shall not be delegated by a member of the board to any person other than a doctor of podiatric medicine and shall be subject to the restrictions against disclosure described in Section 2263.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2005, Ch. 621, Sec. 35. Effective January 1, 2006.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2499

text:
(a) There is in the State Treasury the Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund. Commencing July 1, 2019, the Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund is renamed the Podiatric Medical Board Fund. Any reference in any provision of law to the Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund shall, commencing July 1, 2019, be deemed to refer to the Podiatric Medical Board Fund.

(b) Notwithstanding Section 2445, the board shall report to the Controller at the beginning of each calendar month for the month preceding the amount and source of all revenue received by it on behalf of the board, pursuant to this chapter, and shall pay the entire amount thereof to the Treasurer for deposit into the fund. All revenue received by the board and the division from fees authorized to be charged relating to the practice of podiatric medicine shall be deposited in the fund as provided in this section, and shall be available, upon appropriation of the Legislature, to carry out the provisions of this chapter relating to the regulation of the practice of podiatric medicine.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 102, Sec. 4. (AB 2457) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text:
The following fees apply to certificates to practice podiatric medicine. The amount of fees prescribed for doctors of podiatric medicine shall be determined by the board and shall be as described below. Fees collected pursuant to this section shall be fixed by the board in amounts not to exceed the actual costs of providing the service for which the fee is collected.

(a) Each applicant for a certificate to practice podiatric medicine shall pay an application fee of one hundred dollars ($100) at the time the application is filed. If the applicant qualifies for a certificate, they shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars ($100).

(b) Each applicant who qualifies for a certificate, as a condition precedent to its issuance, in addition to other fees required by this section, shall pay an initial license fee. The initial license fee shall be eight hundred dollars ($800). The initial license shall expire the second year after its issuance on the last day of the month of birth of the licensee. The board may reduce the initial license fee by up to 50 percent of the amount of the fee for any applicant who is enrolled in a postgraduate training program approved by the board or who has completed a postgraduate training program approved by the board within six months prior to the payment of the initial license fee.

(c) The biennial renewal fee shall be one thousand nine hundred dollars ($1,900). Any licensee enrolled in an approved residency program shall be required to pay only 50 percent of the biennial renewal fee at the time of their first renewal.

(d) The delinquency fee shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150).

(e) The duplicate certificate fee shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(f) The letter of good standing fee or for loan deferment shall be one hundred dollars ($100).

(g) There shall be a fee of one hundred dollars ($100) for the issuance of a resident’s license under Section 2475.

(h) The fee for approval of a continuing education course or program shall be two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 194, Sec. 8. (AB 1501) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text: The fees in this article shall be fixed by the board in accordance with Section 313.1.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1989, Ch. 801, Sec. 4. Effective September 26, 1989.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text:
(a) Certificates to practice podiatric medicine shall expire at midnight on the last day of the birth month of the licensee during the second year of a two-year term.

(b) To renew an unexpired certificate, the licensee, on or before the date on which the certificate would otherwise expire, shall apply for renewal on a form prescribed by the board and pay the prescribed renewal fee.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 95. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


text:
Any licensee who demonstrates to the satisfaction of the board that he or she is unable to practice podiatric medicine due to a disability may request a waiver of the license renewal fee. The granting of a waiver shall be at the discretion of the board and may be terminated at any time. Waivers shall be based on the inability of a licensee to practice podiatric medicine. A licensee whose renewal fee has been waived pursuant to this section shall not engage in the practice of podiatric medicine unless and until the licensee pays the current renewal fee and does either of the following:

(a) Establishes to the satisfaction of the board, on a form prescribed by the board and signed under penalty of perjury, that the licensee’s disability either no longer exists or does not affect his or her ability to practice podiatric medicine safely.

(b) Signs an agreement on a form prescribed by the board, signed under penalty of perjury, in which the licensee agrees to limit his or her practice in the manner prescribed by the reviewing physician.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2005, Ch. 621, Sec. 36. Effective January 1, 2006.)

article: 22. Podiatric Medicine


citation: BPC § 2500

text: The boards acknowledge the significant interest of physicians and patients alike in integrating preventative approaches and holistic-based alternatives into the practice of medicine, including, but not limited to, biopsychosocial techniques, nutrition, and the use of natural supplements to enhance health and wellness. The boards shall establish specific policies in this regard and shall review statutes and recommend modifications of law, when appropriate, in order to assure California consumers that the quality of medicine practiced in this state is the most advanced and innovative it can be both in terms of preserving the health of, as well as providing effective diagnosis and treatment of illness for, the residents of this state.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2000, Ch. 660, Sec. 3. Effective January 1, 2001.)

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5. Medicine > 23. Alternative Practices and Treatments


citation: BPC § 2501

text:
In fulfilling their responsibilities under this article, the boards shall , on or before July 1, 2002, establish disciplinary policies and procedures to reflect emerging and innovative medical practices for licensed physicians and surgeons. The boards shall solicit the participation of interested parties in the development and preparation of these policies and procedures and shall consult technical advisors as necessary to fulfill the purposes of this article. In preparing these policies and procedures, the boards shall consult with professional medical associations and review the need for any changes in the boards’ services, procedures, and activities. The boards shall also assess the need for:

(a) Specific standards for informed consent, if any, in order for patients to be able to understand the risks and benefits associated with the range of treatment options available.

(b) Standards for investigations to assure competent review in cases involving the practice of any type of alternative medicine, including, but not limited to, the skills and training of investigators.

article: 23. Alternative Practices and Treatments


citation: BPC § 2505

text: This article shall be known and may be cited as the Licensed Midwifery Practice Act of 1993.

history: (History: Repealed and added by Stats. 1993, Ch. 1280, Sec. 3. Effective January 1, 1994.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5. Medicine > 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2506

text:
As used in this article the following definitions shall apply:

(a) “Board” means the Medical Board of California.

(b) “Licensed midwife” means an individual to whom a license to practice midwifery has been issued pursuant to this article.

(c) “Certified nurse-midwife” means a person to whom a certificate has been issued pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2746) of Chapter 6.

(d) “Accrediting organization” means an organization approved by the board.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2007, Ch. 678, Sec. 24. Effective January 1, 2008.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2507

text:
(a) The license to practice midwifery authorizes the holder to attend cases of normal pregnancy and childbirth, as defined in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), and to provide prenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum care, including family-planning care, for the mother, and immediate care for the newborn.

(b) As used in this article, the practice of midwifery constitutes the furthering or undertaking by any licensed midwife to assist a woman in childbirth as long as progress meets criteria accepted as normal.

(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a licensed midwife shall only assist a woman in normal pregnancy and childbirth, which is defined as meeting all of the following conditions:

(A) There is an absence of both of the following:

(i) Any preexisting maternal disease or condition likely to affect the pregnancy.

(ii) Significant disease arising from the pregnancy.

(B) There is a singleton fetus.

(C) There is a cephalic presentation.

(D) The gestational age of the fetus is greater than 3707 weeks and less than 4207 completed weeks of pregnancy.

(E) Labor is spontaneous or induced in an outpatient setting.

(2) If a potential midwife client meets the conditions specified in subparagraphs (B) to (E), inclusive, of paragraph (1), but fails to meet the conditions specified in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), and the woman still desires to be a client of the licensed midwife, the licensed midwife shall provide the woman with a referral for an examination by a physician and surgeon trained in obstetrics and gynecology. A licensed midwife may assist the woman in pregnancy and childbirth only if an examination by a physician and surgeon trained in obstetrics and gynecology is obtained and the physician and surgeon who examined the woman determines that the risk factors presented by her disease or condition are not likely to significantly affect the course of pregnancy and childbirth.

(3) The board shall adopt regulations pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part of 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code) specifying the conditions described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).

(c) (1) If at any point during pregnancy, childbirth, or postpartum care a client’s condition deviates from normal, the licensed midwife shall immediately refer or transfer the client to a physician and surgeon. The licensed midwife may consult and remain in consultation with the physician and surgeon after the referral or transfer.

(2) If a physician and surgeon determines that the client’s condition or concern has been resolved such that the risk factors presented by a woman’s disease or condition are not likely to significantly affect the course of pregnancy or childbirth, the licensed midwife may resume primary care of the client and resume assisting the client during her pregnancy, childbirth, or postpartum care.

(3) If a physician and surgeon determines the client’s condition or concern has not been resolved as specified in paragraph (2), the licensed midwife may provide concurrent care with a physician and surgeon and, if authorized by the client, be present during the labor and childbirth, and resume postpartum care, if appropriate. A licensed midwife shall not resume primary care of the client.

(d) A licensed midwife shall not provide or continue to provide midwifery care to a woman with a risk factor that will significantly affect the course of pregnancy and childbirth, regardless of whether the woman has consented to this care or refused care by a physician or surgeon, except as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c).

(e) The practice of midwifery does not include the assisting of childbirth by any artificial, forcible, or mechanical means, nor the performance of any version of these means.

(f) A midwife is authorized to directly obtain supplies and devices, obtain and administer drugs and diagnostic tests, order testing, and receive reports that are necessary to his or her practice of midwifery and consistent with his or her scope of practice.

(g) This article does not authorize a midwife to practice medicine or to perform surgery.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2014, Ch. 71, Sec. 3. (SB 1304) Effective January 1, 2015.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2508

text:
(a) A licensed midwife shall disclose in oral and written form to a prospective client as part of a client care plan, and obtain informed consent for, all of the following:

(1) All of the provisions of Section 2507.

(2) The client is retaining a licensed midwife, not a certified nurse-midwife, and the licensed midwife is not supervised by a physician and surgeon.

(3) The licensed midwife’s current licensure status and license number.

(4) The practice settings in which the licensed midwife practices.

(5) If the licensed midwife does not have liability coverage for the practice of midwifery, he or she shall disclose that fact. The licensed midwife shall disclose to the client that many physicians and surgeons do not have liability insurance coverage for services provided to someone having a planned out-of-hospital birth.

(6) The acknowledgment that if the client is advised to consult with a physician and surgeon, failure to do so may affect the client’s legal rights in any professional negligence actions against a physician and surgeon, licensed health care professional, or hospital.

(7) There are conditions that are outside of the scope of practice of a licensed midwife that will result in a referral for a consultation from, or transfer of care to, a physician and surgeon.

(8) The specific arrangements for the referral of complications to a physician and surgeon for consultation. The licensed midwife shall not be required to identify a specific physician and surgeon.

(9) The specific arrangements for the transfer of care during the prenatal period, hospital transfer during the intrapartum and postpartum periods, and access to appropriate emergency medical services for mother and baby if necessary, and recommendations for preregistration at a hospital that has obstetric emergency services and is most likely to receive the transfer.

(10) If, during the course of care, the client is informed that she has or may have a condition indicating the need for a mandatory transfer, the licensed midwife shall initiate the transfer.

(11) The availability of the text of laws regulating licensed midwifery practices and the procedure for reporting complaints to the Medical Board of California, which may be found on the Medical Board of California’s Internet Web site.

(12) Consultation with a physician and surgeon does not alone create a physician-patient relationship or any other relationship with the physician and surgeon. The informed consent shall specifically state that the licensed midwife and the consulting physician and surgeon are not employees, partners, associates, agents, or principals of one another. The licensed midwife shall inform the patient that he or she is independently licensed and practicing midwifery and in that regard is solely responsible for the services he or she provides.

(b) The disclosure and consent shall be signed by both the licensed midwife and the client and a copy of the disclosure and consent shall be placed in the client’s medical record.

(c) The Medical Board of California may prescribe the form for the written disclosure and informed consent statement required to be used by a licensed midwife under this section.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2013, Ch. 665, Sec. 3. (AB 1308) Effective January 1, 2014.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2509

text: The board shall create and appoint a Midwifery Advisory Council consisting of licensees of the board in good standing, who need not be members of the board, and members of the public who have an interest in midwifery practice, including, but not limited to, home births. At least one-half of the council members shall be California licensed midwives. The council shall make recommendations on matters specified by the board.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2006, Ch. 536, Sec. 1. Effective January 1, 2007.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2510

text: If a client is transferred to a hospital, the licensed midwife shall provide records, including prenatal records, and speak with the receiving physician and surgeon about labor up to the point of the transfer. The hospital shall report each transfer of a planned out-of-hospital birth to the Medical Board of California and the California Maternal Quality Care Collaborative using a standardized form developed by the board.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2013, Ch. 665, Sec. 4. (AB 1308) Effective January 1, 2014.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2511

text:
(a) No person, other than one who has been licensed to practice midwifery by the board, shall hold himself or herself out as a licensed midwife, or use any other term indicating or implying that he or she is a licensed midwife.

(b) Nothing in this article shall be construed to limit in any manner the practice of an individual to whom a certificate has been issued pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2746) of Chapter 6, or to prevent an individual to whom a certificate has been issued pursuant to Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 2746) of Chapter 6 from holding himself or herself out as a certified nurse-midwife, nurse midwife, midwife, or from using the initials “CNM.”

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text: Each application for licensure as a licensed midwife shall be made upon an online electronic form, or other form, provided by the board, and each application form shall contain a legal verification by the applicant certifying under penalty of perjury that the information provided by the applicant is true and correct and that any information in supporting documents provided by the applicant is true and correct.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2021, Ch. 649, Sec. 27. (SB 806) Effective January 1, 2022.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2512

text: The board shall issue a license to practice midwifery to all applicants who meet the requirements of this article and who pay the fee required by Section 2520.

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text:
A person is qualified for a license to practice midwifery when he or she satisfies one of the following requirements:

(a) (1) Successful completion of a three-year postsecondary midwifery education program accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the board. Upon successful completion of the education requirements of this article, the applicant shall successfully complete a comprehensive licensing examination adopted by the board which is equivalent, but not identical, to the examination given by the American College of Nurse Midwives. The examination for licensure as a midwife may be conducted by the Division of Licensing under a uniform examination system, and the division may contract with organizations to administer the examination in order to carry out this purpose. The Division of Licensing may, in its discretion, designate additional written examinations for midwifery licensure that the division determines are equivalent to the examination given by the American College of Nurse Midwives.

(2) The midwifery education program curriculum shall consist of not less than 84 semester units or 126 quarter units. The course of instruction shall be presented in semester or quarter units under the following formula:

(A) One hour of instruction in the theory each week throughout a semester or quarter equals one unit.

(B) Three hours of clinical practice each week throughout a semester or quarter equals one unit.

(3) The midwifery education program shall provide both academic and clinical preparation equivalent, but not identical to that provided in programs accredited by the American College of Nurse Midwives, which shall include, but not be limited to, preparation in all of the following areas:

(A) The art and science of midwifery, one-half of which shall be in theory and one-half of which shall be in clinical practice. Theory and clinical practice shall be concurrent in the areas of maternal and child health, including, but not limited to, labor and delivery, neonatal well care, and postpartum care.

(B) Communications skills that include the principles of oral, written, and group communications.

(C) Anatomy and physiology, genetics, obstetrics and gynecology, embryology and fetal development, neonatology, applied microbiology, chemistry, child growth and development, pharmacology, nutrition, laboratory diagnostic tests and procedures, and physical assessment.

(D) Concepts in psychosocial, emotional, and cultural aspects of maternal and child care, human sexuality, counseling and teaching, maternal and infant and family bonding process, breast feeding, family planning, principles of preventive health, and community health.

(E) Aspects of the normal pregnancy, labor and delivery, postpartum period, newborn care, family planning or routine gynecological care in alternative birth centers, homes, and hospitals.

(F) The following shall be integrated throughout the entire curriculum:

(i) Midwifery process.

(ii) Basic intervention skills in preventive, remedial, and supportive midwifery.

(iii) The knowledge and skills required to develop collegial relationships with health care providers from other disciplines.

(iv) Related behavioral and social sciences with emphasis on societal and cultural patterns, human development, and behavior related to maternal and child health, illness, and wellness.

(G) Instruction shall also be given in personal hygiene, client abuse, cultural diversity, and the legal, social, and ethical aspects of midwifery.

(H) The program shall include the midwifery management process, which shall include all of the following:

(i) Obtaining or updating a defined and relevant data base for assessment of the health status of the client.

(ii) Identifying problems based upon correct interpretation of the data base.

(iii) Preparing a defined needs or problem list, or both, with corroboration from the client.

(iv) Consulting, collaborating with, and referring to, appropriate members of the health care team.

(v) Providing information to enable clients to make appropriate decisions and to assume appropriate responsibility for their own health.

(vi) Assuming direct responsibility for the development of comprehensive, supportive care for the client and with the client.

(vii) Assuming direct responsibility for implementing the plan of care.

(viii) Initiating appropriate measures for obstetrical and neonatal emergencies.

(ix) Evaluating, with corroboration from the client, the achievement of health care goals and modifying the plan of care appropriately.

(b) Successful completion of an educational program that the board has determined satisfies the criteria of subdivision (a) and current licensure as a midwife by a state with licensing standards that have been found by the board to be equivalent to those adopted by the board pursuant to this article.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 1999, Ch. 655, Sec. 30. Effective January 1, 2000.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2513

text:
(a) An approved midwifery education program shall offer the opportunity for students to obtain credit by examination for previous midwifery education and clinical experience. The applicant shall demonstrate, by practical examination, the clinical competencies described in Section 2514 or established by regulation pursuant to Section 2514.5. The midwifery education program’s credit by examination policy shall be approved by the board, and shall be available to applicants upon request. The proficiency and practical examinations shall be approved by the board. Beginning January 1, 2015, new licensees shall not substitute clinical experience for formal didactic education.

(b) Completion of clinical experiences shall be verified by a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, and a physician and surgeon, all of whom shall be current in the knowledge and practice of obstetrics and midwifery. Physicians and surgeons, licensed midwives, and certified nurse-midwives who participate in the verification and evaluation of an applicant’s clinical experiences shall show evidence of current practice. The method used to verify clinical experiences shall be approved by the board.

(c) Upon successful completion of the requirements of paragraphs (1) and (2), the applicant shall also complete the licensing examination described in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 2512.5.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2013, Ch. 665, Sec. 5. (AB 1308) Effective January 1, 2014.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text: The Medical Board of California shall submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice of all applicants for a midwife license, as defined by Section 2507, to determine whether the applicant has a criminal conviction record in this state or in any other jurisdiction, including foreign countries, pursuant to Section 2042. The Department of Justice shall provide a state- and federal-level response pursuant to subdivision (p) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code for the board to determine whether the applicant is subject to denial of licensure under the provisions of Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475).

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2025, Ch. 113, Sec. 9. (SB 160) Effective September 17, 2025.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2514

text:
(a) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prevent a bona fide student from engaging in the practice of midwifery in this state, as part of his or her course of study, if both of the following conditions are met:

(1) The student is under the supervision of a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, who holds a clear and unrestricted license in this state, who is present on the premises at all times client services are provided, and who is practicing pursuant to Section 2507 or 2746.5, or a physician and surgeon.

(2) The client is informed of the student’s status.

(b) For the purposes of this section, a “bona fide student” means an individual who is enrolled and participating in a midwifery education program or who is enrolled in a program of supervised clinical training as part of the instruction of a three year postsecondary midwifery education program approved by the board.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2013, Ch. 515, Sec. 17. (SB 304) Effective January 1, 2014.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text:
(a) Within 60 days following January 1, 1998, the board shall adopt regulations setting forth educational requirements. To develop these regulations, the board shall update the educational requirements set forth in Sections 2512.5, 2513, and 2514. These updated sections shall reflect national standards for the practice of midwifery and shall be subject to public hearings prior to adoption. The board shall review and update the regulations every two years.

(b) The board shall adopt the written examination required by this article by July 1, 1994.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 1993, Ch. 1280, Sec. 3. Effective January 1, 1994.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2515

text: The board shall approve specific educational programs intended to meet the requirements of subdivision (a) of Section 2512.5 and Section 2514 for the course of academic study, documentation of experience and skill, and clinical evaluation. These programs shall also be accredited by an accrediting organization approved by the board.

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text: Each applicant shall show by evidence satisfactory to the board that he or she has met the educational standards established by the board pursuant to this article or the equivalent thereof.

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2516

text:
(a) Each licensed midwife who assists, or supervises a student midwife in assisting, in childbirth that occurs in an out-of-hospital setting shall annually report to the Department of Health Care Access and Information. The report shall be submitted no later than March 30, for the prior calendar year, in a form specified by the board and shall contain all of the following:

(1) The midwife’s name and license number.

(2) The calendar year being reported.

(3) The following information with regard to cases in California in which the midwife, or the student midwife supervised by the midwife, assisted during the previous year when the intended place of birth at the onset of care was an out-of-hospital setting:

(A) The total number of clients served as primary caregiver at the onset of care.

(B) The number by county of live births attended as primary caregiver.

(C) The number, by county, of cases of fetal demise, infant deaths, and maternal deaths attended as primary caregiver at the discovery of the demise or death.

(D) The number of women whose primary care was transferred to another health care practitioner during the antepartum period, and the reason for each transfer.

(E) The number, reason, and outcome for each elective hospital transfer during the intrapartum or postpartum period.

(F) The number, reason, and outcome for each urgent or emergency transport of an expectant mother in the antepartum period.

(G) The number, reason, and outcome for each urgent or emergency transport of an infant or mother during the intrapartum or immediate postpartum period.

(H) The number of planned out-of-hospital births at the onset of labor and the number of births completed in an out-of-hospital setting.

(I) The number of planned out-of-hospital births completed in an out-of-hospital setting that were any of the following:

(i) Twin births.

(ii) Multiple births other than twin births.

(iii) Breech births.

(iv) Vaginal births after the performance of a cesarean section.

(J) A brief description of any complications resulting in the morbidity or mortality of a mother or a neonate.

(K) Any other information prescribed by the board in regulations.

(b) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall maintain the confidentiality of the information submitted pursuant to this section, and shall not permit any law enforcement or regulatory agency to inspect or have copies made of the contents of any reports submitted pursuant to subdivision (a) for any purpose, including, but not limited to, investigations for licensing, certification, or regulatory purposes.

(c) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall report to the board, by April 30, those licensees who have met the requirements of subdivision (a) for that year.

(d) The board shall send a written notice of noncompliance to each licensee who fails to meet the reporting requirement of subdivision (a). Failure to comply with subdivision (a) will result in the midwife being unable to renew their license without first submitting the requisite data to the Department of Health Care Access and Information for the year for which that data was missing or incomplete. The board shall not take any other action against the licensee for failure to comply with subdivision (a).

(e) The board, in consultation with the Department of Health Care Access and Information and the Midwifery Advisory Council, shall devise a coding system related to data elements that require coding in order to assist in both effective reporting and the aggregation of data pursuant to subdivision (f). The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall utilize this coding system in its processing of information collected for purposes of subdivision (f).

(f) The Department of Health Care Access and Information shall report the aggregate information collected pursuant to this section to the board by July 30 of each year. The board shall include this information in its annual report to the Legislature.

(g) The board, with input from the Midwifery Advisory Council, may adjust the data elements required to be reported to better coordinate with other reporting systems, including the reporting system of the Midwives Alliance of North America (MANA), while maintaining the data elements unique to California. To better capture data needed for the report required by this section, the concurrent use of systems, including MANA’s, by licensed midwives is encouraged.

(h) Notwithstanding any other law, a violation of this section shall not be a crime.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2022, Ch. 511, Sec. 13. (SB 1495) Effective January 1, 2023.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text:
(a) As used in this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Midwife assistant” means a person, who may be unlicensed, who performs basic administrative, clerical, and midwife technical supportive services in accordance with this chapter for a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, is at least 18 years of age, and has had at least the minimum amount of hours of appropriate training pursuant to standards established by the board for a medical assistant pursuant to Section 2069. The midwife assistant shall be issued a certificate by the training institution or instructor indicating satisfactory completion of the required training. Each employer of the midwife assistant or the midwife assistant shall retain a copy of the certificate as a record.

(2) “Midwife technical supportive services” means simple routine medical tasks and procedures that may be safely performed by a midwife assistant who has limited training and who functions under the supervision of a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife.

(3) “Specific authorization” means a specific written order prepared by the supervising midwife or supervising nurse-midwife authorizing the procedures to be performed on a patient, which shall be placed in the patient’s medical record, or a standing order prepared by the supervising midwife or supervising nurse-midwife authorizing the procedures to be performed. A notation of the standing order shall be placed in the patient’s medical record.

(4) “Supervision” means the supervision of procedures authorized by this section by a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, within his or her scope of practice, who is physically present on the premises during the performance of those procedures.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a midwife assistant may do all of the following:

(1) Administer medication only by intradermal, subcutaneous, or intramuscular injections and perform skin tests and additional technical support services upon the specific authorization and supervision of a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife. A midwife assistant may also perform all these tasks and services in a clinic licensed in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section 1204 of the Health and Safety Code upon the specific authorization of a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife.

(2) Perform venipuncture or skin puncture for the purposes of withdrawing blood upon specific authorization and under the supervision of a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, if the midwife assistant has met the educational and training requirements for medical assistants as established in Section 2070. Each employer of the assistant shall retain a copy of any related certificates as a record.

(3) Perform the following midwife technical support services:

(A) Administer medications orally, sublingually, topically, or rectally, or by providing a single dose to a patient for immediate self-administration, and administer oxygen at the direction of the supervising licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife. The licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife shall verify the correct medication and dosage before the midwife assistant administers medication.

(B) Assist in immediate newborn care when the licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife is engaged in a concurrent activity that precludes the licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife from doing so.

(C) Assist in placement of the device used for auscultation of fetal heart tones when a licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife is engaged in a concurrent activity that precludes the licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife from doing so.

(D) Collect by noninvasive techniques and preserve specimens for testing, including, but not limited to, urine.

(E) Assist patients to and from a patient examination room, bed, or bathroom.

(F) Assist patients in activities of daily living, such as assisting with bathing or clothing.

(G) As authorized by the licensed midwife or certified nurse-midwife, provide patient information and instructions.

(H) Collect and record patient data, including height, weight, temperature, pulse, respiration rate, blood pressure, and basic information about the presenting and previous conditions.

(I) Perform simple laboratory and screening tests customarily performed in a medical or midwife office.

(4) Perform additional midwife technical support services under regulations and standards established by the board.

(c) (1) Nothing in this section shall be construed as authorizing the licensure of midwife assistants. Nothing in this section shall be construed as authorizing the administration of local anesthetic agents by a midwife assistant. Nothing in this section shall be construed as authorizing the board to adopt any regulations that violate the prohibitions on diagnosis or treatment in Section 2052.

(2) Nothing in this section shall be construed as authorizing a midwife assistant to perform any clinical laboratory test or examination for which he or she is not authorized under Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1200).

(d) Notwithstanding any other law, a midwife assistant shall not be employed for inpatient care in a licensed general acute care hospital as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2015, Ch. 280, Sec. 1. (SB 408) Effective January 1, 2016.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2517

text: A person who has been convicted of a misdemeanor violation of Section 2052, prior to the effective date of this article, shall not be barred from licensure under this article solely because of that conviction.

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2518

text:
(a) Licenses issued pursuant to this article shall be renewable every two years upon payment of the fee prescribed by Section 2520 and submission of documentation that the licenseholder has completed 36 hours of continuing education in areas that fall within the scope of the practice of midwifery, as specified by the board.

(b) Each license not renewed shall expire, but may be reinstated within five years from the expiration upon payment of the prescribed fee and upon submission of proof of the applicant’s qualifications as the board may require.

(c) A licensee is exempt from the payment of the renewal fee required by Section 2520 and the requirement for continuing education if the licensee has applied to the board for, and been issued, a retired status license. The holder of a retired status license may not engage in the practice of midwifery.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2012, Ch. 799, Sec. 15. (SB 1575) Effective January 1, 2013.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2519

text:
The board may suspend, revoke, or place on probation the license of a midwife for any of the following:

(a) Unprofessional conduct, which includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1) Incompetence or gross negligence in carrying out the usual functions of a licensed midwife.

(2) Conviction of a violation of Section 2052, in which event, the record of the conviction shall be conclusive evidence thereof.

(3) The use of advertising that is fraudulent or misleading.

(4) Obtaining or possessing in violation of law, or prescribing, or except as directed by a licensed physician and surgeon, dentist, or podiatrist administering to themselves, or furnishing or administering to another, any controlled substance as defined in Division 10 (commencing with Section 11000) of the Health and Safety Code or any dangerous drug as defined in Article 8 (commencing with Section 4210) of Chapter 9 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code.

(5) The use of any controlled substance as defined in Division 10 (commencing with Section 11000) of the Health and Safety Code, or any dangerous drug as defined in Article 8 (commencing with Section 4210) of Chapter 9 of Division 2 of the Business and Professions Code, or alcoholic beverages, to an extent or in a manner dangerous or injurious to themselves, any other person, or the public, or to the extent that this use impairs their ability to conduct with safety to the public the practice authorized by their license.

(6) Conviction of a criminal offense involving the prescription, consumption, or self-administration of any of the substances described in paragraphs (4) and (5), or the possession of, or falsification of, a record pertaining to, the substances described in paragraph (4), in which event the record of the conviction is conclusive evidence thereof.

(7) Commitment or confinement by a court of competent jurisdiction for intemperate use of or addiction to the use of any of the substances described in paragraphs (4) and (5), in which event the court order of commitment or confinement is prima facie evidence of such commitment or confinement.

(8) Falsifying, or making grossly incorrect, grossly inconsistent, or unintelligible entries in any hospital, patient, or other record pertaining to the substances described in subdivision (a).

(b) Procuring a license by fraud or misrepresentation.

(c) Conviction of a crime substantially related to the qualifications, functions, and duties of a midwife, as determined by the board.

(d) Violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate any provision or term of this chapter.

(e) Making or giving any false statement or information in connection with the application for issuance of a license.

(f) Impersonating any applicant or acting as proxy for an applicant in any examination required under this chapter for the issuance of a license or a certificate.

(g) Impersonating another licensed practitioner, or permitting or allowing another person to use their license or certificate for the purpose of providing midwifery services.

(h) Aiding or assisting, or agreeing to aid or assist any person or persons, whether a licensed physician or not, in the performance of, or arranging for, a violation of any of the provisions of Article 12 (commencing with Section 2221) of Chapter 5.

(i) Failing to do any of the following when required pursuant to Section 2507:

(1) Consult with a physician and surgeon.

(2) Refer a client to a physician and surgeon.

(3) Transfer a client to a hospital.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 136, Sec. 5. (AB 260) Effective September 26, 2025.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


text:
(a) Any complaint determined to involve quality of care, before referral to a field office for further investigation, shall meet both of the following criteria:

(1) It shall be reviewed by one or more medical experts with the pertinent education, training, and expertise in midwifery to evaluate the specific standard of care issues raised by the complaint to determine if further field investigation is required.

(2) It shall include the review of all of the following, which shall be requested by the board:

(A) Relevant client records.

(B) The statement or explanation of the care and treatment provided by the licensed midwife.

(C) Any additional expert testimony or literature provided by the licensed midwife.

(D) Any additional facts or information requested by the medical expert reviewers that may assist them in determining whether the care rendered constitutes a departure from the midwifery standards of care.

(b) If the board does not receive the information requested pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) within 10 business days of requesting that information, the complaint may be reviewed by the medical experts and referred to a field office for investigation without the information.

(c) Nothing in this section shall impede the board’s ability to seek and obtain an interim suspension order or other emergency relief.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2022, Ch. 510, Sec. 1. (SB 1440) Effective January 1, 2023.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2520

text:
(a) (1) The fee to be paid upon the filing of a license application shall be four hundred fifty dollars ($450).

(2) For licenses that expire on or after January 1, 2022, the fee for renewal of the midwife license shall be three hundred dollars ($300).

(3) The delinquency fee for renewal of the midwife license shall be 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the date of the renewal of the license, but not less than twenty-five dollars ($25) nor more than fifty dollars ($50).

(4) The fee for the examination shall be the cost of administering the examination to the applicant, as determined by the organization that has entered into a contract with the board for the purposes set forth in subdivision (a) of Section 2512.5. Notwithstanding subdivision (c), that fee may be collected and retained by that organization.

(b) The fee for monitoring a licensee on probation shall be the cost of monitoring, as fixed by the board.

(c) The fees prescribed by this article shall be deposited in the Licensed Midwifery Fund, which is hereby established, and shall be available, upon appropriation, to the board for the purposes of this article.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2021, Ch. 649, Sec. 29. (SB 806) Effective January 1, 2022.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2521

text: Any person who violates this article is guilty of a misdemeanor.

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2522

text:
(a) A person whose license has been voluntarily surrendered while under investigation or while charges are pending or whose license has been revoked or suspended or placed on probation, may petition the board for reinstatement or modification of penalty, including modification or termination of probation.

(b) The person may file the petition after a period of not less than the following minimum periods have elapsed from the effective date of the surrender of the license or the decision ordering that disciplinary action:

(1) At least three years for reinstatement of a license surrendered or revoked for unprofessional conduct, except that the board may, for good cause shown, specify in a revocation order that a petition for reinstatement may be filed after two years.

(2) At least two years for early termination of probation of three years or more.

(3) At least one year for modification of a condition, or reinstatement of a license surrendered or revoked for mental or physical illness, or termination of probation of less than three years.

(c) The petition shall state any facts as may be required by the board. The petition shall be accompanied by at least two verified recommendations from midwives licensed in any state who have personal knowledge of the activities of the petitioner since the disciplinary penalty was imposed.

(d) The petition may be heard by a panel of the board. The board may assign the petition to an administrative law judge designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code. After a hearing on the petition, the administrative law judge shall provide a proposed decision to the board, which shall be acted upon in accordance with Section 2335.

(e) The panel of the board or the administrative law judge hearing the petition may consider all activities of the petitioner since the disciplinary action was taken, the offense for which the petitioner was disciplined, the petitioner’s activities during the time the license was in good standing, and the petitioner’s rehabilitative efforts, general reputation for truth, and professional ability. The hearing may be continued from time to time as the administrative law judge designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code finds necessary.

(f) The administrative law judge designated in Section 11371 of the Government Code reinstating a license or modifying a penalty may recommend the imposition of any terms and conditions deemed necessary.

(g) No petition shall be considered while the petitioner is under sentence for any criminal offense, including any period during which the petitioner is on court-imposed probation or parole. No petition shall be considered while there is an accusation or petition to revoke probation pending against the person. The board may deny without a hearing or argument any petition filed pursuant to this section within a period of two years from the effective date of the prior decision following a hearing under this section.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2016, Ch. 303, Sec. 7. (AB 2745) Effective January 1, 2017.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2523

text:
(a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (c), the board shall revoke the license of any person who has been required to register as a sex offender pursuant to Section 290 of the Penal Code for conduct that occurred on or after January 1, 2017.

(b) This section shall not apply to a person who is required to register as a sex offender pursuant to Section 290 of the Penal Code solely because of a misdemeanor conviction under Section 314 of the Penal Code.

(c) This section shall not apply to a person who has been relieved under Section 290.5 of the Penal Code of his or her duty to register as a sex offender, or whose duty to register has otherwise been formally terminated under California law.

(d) A proceeding to revoke a license pursuant to this section shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2016, Ch. 303, Sec. 8. (AB 2745) Effective January 1, 2017.)

article: 24. Licensed Midwives


citation: BPC § 2525

text:
(a) It is unlawful for a physician and surgeon who recommends cannabis to a patient for a medical purpose to accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration from or to a facility issued a state license pursuant to Division 10 (commencing with Section 26000), if the physician and surgeon or his or her immediate family have a financial interest in that facility.

(b) For the purposes of this section, “financial interest” shall have the same meaning as in Section 650.01.

(c) A violation of this section shall be a misdemeanor punishable by up to one year in county jail and a fine of up to five thousand dollars ($5,000) or by civil penalties of up to five thousand dollars ($5,000) and shall constitute unprofessional conduct.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 599, Sec. 3. (AB 3261) Effective January 1, 2019.)

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5. Medicine > 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text: The Medical Board of California shall consult with the California Marijuana Research Program, known as the Center for Medicinal Cannabis Research, authorized pursuant to Section 11362.9 of the Health and Safety Code, on developing and adopting medical guidelines for the appropriate administration and use of medical cannabis.

history: (History: Added by Stats. 2015, Ch. 719, Sec. 5. (SB 643) Effective January 1, 2016.)

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text: An individual who possesses a license in good standing to practice medicine or osteopathy issued by the Medical Board of California, the California Board of Podiatric Medicine, or the Osteopathic Medical Board of California shall not recommend medical cannabis to a patient, unless that person is the patient’s attending physician, as defined by subdivision (a) of Section 11362.7 of the Health and Safety Code.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 775, Sec. 96. (SB 798) Effective January 1, 2018.)

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text: Recommending medical cannabis to a patient for a medical purpose without an appropriate prior examination and a medical indication constitutes unprofessional conduct.

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text: It is unprofessional conduct for any attending physician recommending medical cannabis to be employed by, or enter into any other agreement with, any person or entity dispensing medical cannabis.

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text: (a) A person shall not distribute any form of advertising for physician recommendations for medical cannabis in California unless the advertisement bears the following notice to consumers: NOTICE TO CONSUMERS: The Compassionate Use Act of 1996 ensures that seriously ill Californians have the right to obtain and use cannabis for medical purposes where medical use is deemed appropriate and has been recommended by a physician who has determined that the person’s health would benefit from the use of medical cannabis. Recommendations must come from an attending physician as defined in Section 11362.7 of the Health and Safety Code. Cannabis is a Schedule I drug according to the federal Controlled Substances Act. Activity related to cannabis use is subject to federal prosecution, regardless of the protections provided by state law. (b) Advertising for attending physician recommendations for medical cannabis shall meet all of the requirements in Section 651. Price advertising shall not be fraudulent, deceitful, or misleading, including statements or advertisements of bait, discounts, premiums, gifts, or statements of a similar nature.

article: 25. Recommending Medical Cannabis


text:
(a) A person shall not hold themselves out to be an athletic trainer, use the title “athletic trainer,” “certified athletic trainer,” “licensed athletic trainer,” “registered athletic trainer,” or any other term such as “AT,” “ATC,” “LAT,” or “CAT” to imply or suggest that the person is an athletic trainer, unless they meet the following requirements:

(1) Have done either of the following:

(A) Graduated from a college or university after completing an athletic training education program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education, or its predecessors or successors.

(B) Completed eligibility requirements for certification by the Board of Certification for the Athletic Trainer, or its predecessors or successors.

(2) Is certified by the Board of Certification for the Athletic Trainer, or its predecessors or successors.

(b) It is an unfair business practice within the meaning of Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 2 of Division 7 for a person to use the title “athletic trainer,” “certified athletic trainer,” “licensed athletic trainer,” “registered athletic trainer,” or any other term such as “AT,” “ATC,” “LAT,” or “CAT,” that implies or suggests that the person is an athletic trainer, if they do not meet the requirements of subdivision (a).

(c) A person shall not hold themselves out to be an athletic trainer or use any of the titles listed under subdivisions (a) and (b) if either of the following is true:

(1) The person has been convicted in a court in or outside of this state of any offense that, if committed or attempted in this state, based on the elements of the convicted offense, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses described in subdivision (c) of Section 290 of the Penal Code.

(2) The person has an athletic trainer license or registration in another state that was disciplined or is otherwise restricted, or if an accusation or similar document initiating disciplinary action is pending against the license or registration.

(d) A person who is currently using one of the titles listed under subdivisions (a) and (b) and is covered under a collective bargaining agreement is not subject to the requirements of this section until the parties to that bargaining agreement renew that agreement. At that time, a person shall not use the titles listed in subdivisions (a) and (b) if the individual does not meet the requirements of this section. Those individuals may choose a different title to describe their positions under the new collective bargaining agreement.

(e) An employee whose title is changed in order to comply with this section shall not suffer any loss of employment status as a result of the title change, including, but not limited to, layoff, demotion, termination, reclassification, or loss of pay, seniority, benefits, or any other status or compensation related to the position.

(f) This section does not apply to professional trainers licensed by the State Athletic Commission.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2025, Ch. 67, Sec. 6. (AB 1170) Effective January 1, 2026.)

article: 26. Athletic Trainers

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5. Medicine > 26. Athletic Trainers


citation: BPC § 2530

text: This act may be cited as the “Speech-Language Pathologists and Audiologists and Hearing Aid Dispensers Licensure Act.”

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2011, Ch. 449, Sec. 2. (SB 933) Effective January 1, 2012.)

article: 1. General Provisions

path: 2. HEALING ARTS > 5.3. Speech-Language Pathologists, Audiologists, and Hearing Aid Dispensers > 1. General Provisions


text: The Legislature finds and declares that the practice of speech-language pathology and audiology and hearing aid dispensing in California affects the public health, safety, and welfare and there is a necessity for those professions to be subject to regulation and control.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2011, Ch. 449, Sec. 3. (SB 933) Effective January 1, 2012.)

chapter: 5.3. Speech-Language Pathologists, Audiologists, and Hearing Aid Dispensers

article: 1. General Provisions


text:
As used in this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:

(a) “Board” means the Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Board.

(b) “Person” means any individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or combination thereof, except that only individuals can be licensed under this chapter.

(c) A “speech-language pathologist” is a person who practices speech-language pathology.

(d) The practice of speech-language pathology means all of the following:

(1) The application of principles, methods, instrumental procedures, and noninstrumental procedures for measurement, testing, screening, evaluation, identification, prediction, and counseling related to the development and disorders of speech, voice, language, or swallowing.

(2) The application of principles and methods for preventing, planning, directing, conducting, and supervising programs for habilitating, rehabilitating, ameliorating, managing, or modifying disorders of speech, voice, language, or swallowing in individuals or groups of individuals.

(3) Conducting hearing screenings.

(4) Performing suctioning in connection with the scope of practice described in paragraphs (1) and (2), after compliance with a medical facility’s training protocols on suctioning procedures.

(e) (1) Instrumental procedures referred to in subdivision (d) are the use of rigid and flexible endoscopes to observe the pharyngeal and laryngeal areas of the throat in order to observe, collect data, and measure the parameters of communication and swallowing as well as to guide communication and swallowing assessment and therapy. Passage of these instruments without the presence of a physician and surgeon is subject to paragraph (2).

(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed as a diagnosis. Any observation of an abnormality shall be referred to a physician and surgeon.

(f) (1) A licensed speech-language pathologist shall not perform a flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedure unless they have received written verification from one otolaryngologist certified by the American Board of Otolaryngology – Head and Neck Surgery that the speech-language pathologist has performed a minimum of 25 supervised flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures and they are competent to perform these procedures. Of these 25 procedures, the first 10 procedures shall be supervised by a licensed physician and surgeon who performs nasal endoscopy as part of their practice and the subsequent 15 procedures shall be supervised by either a licensed physician and surgeon who performs nasal endoscopy as part of their practice or by another licensed speech-language pathologist who is verified as competent in performing flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures. The speech-language pathologist shall have this written verification on file and readily available for inspection upon request by the board. A speech-language pathologist with a verification on file shall pass a flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic instrument only upon the orders of a licensed physician and surgeon. The order by a physician and surgeon is deemed to allow a speech-language pathologist with verification, in accordance with this paragraph, to perform fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures at a location based on the patient’s medical needs that complies with procedures specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).

(2) A licensed speech-language pathologist who holds a written verification pursuant to this subdivision that was issued before January 1, 2023, shall be deemed to meet the requirements described in paragraph (1).

(g) (1) A licensed speech-language pathologist shall only perform flexible endoscopic procedures described in subdivision (e) in the following settings that requires the facility to have protocols for emergency medical backup procedures, including a physician and surgeon or other appropriate medical professionals being readily available.

(A) A clinic, as defined in Section 1200 of the Health and Safety Code.

(B) A facility described in Chapter 2.5 (commencing with Section 1440) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(C) A health facility, as defined in Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code.

(D) A hospice facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 1745) of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code.

(E) A medical group practice, including a professional medical corporation, as defined in Section 2406, another form of corporation controlled by physicians and surgeons, a medical partnership, a medical foundation exempt from licensure, or another lawfully organized group of physicians and surgeons that provides health care services.

(2) A licensed speech-language pathologist performing flexible fiber optic transnasal endoscopic procedures on patients who have contraindications to the procedure shall consult and document clearance with the physician and surgeon that the licensed speech-language pathologist can safely perform the procedure. For purposes of this paragraph, contraindications for these procedures may include, but are not limited to, cases of bilateral obstruction of nasal passages, refractory epistaxis, cardiac disorder with acute risk of vasovagal episode and bradycardia, history of vasovagal episodes, facial trauma, recent trauma to the nasal cavity, or surrounding tissue and structures secondary to surgery or injury, severe bleeding disorders, severe movement disorders, severe agitation, and inability to cooperate with the examination.

(h) “Speech-language pathology aide” means any person meeting the minimum requirements established by the board, who works directly under the supervision of a speech-language pathologist.

(i) (1) “Speech-language pathology assistant” means a person who meets the academic and supervised training requirements set forth by the board and who is approved by the board to assist in the provision of speech-language pathology under the direction and supervision of a speech-language pathologist who shall be responsible for the extent, kind, and quality of the services provided by the speech-language pathology assistant.

(2) The supervising speech-language pathologist employed or contracted for by a public school may hold a valid and current license issued by the board, a valid, current, and professional clear clinical or rehabilitative services credential in language, speech, and hearing issued by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing, or other credential authorizing service in language, speech, and hearing issued by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing that is not issued on the basis of an emergency permit or waiver of requirements. For purposes of this paragraph, a “clear” credential is a credential that is not issued pursuant to a waiver or emergency permit and is as otherwise defined by the Commission on Teacher Credentialing. Nothing in this section referring to credentialed supervising speech-language pathologists expands existing exemptions from licensing pursuant to Section 2530.5.

(j) An “audiologist” is one who practices audiology.

(k) “The practice of audiology” means the application of principles, methods, and procedures of measurement, testing, appraisal, prediction, consultation, counseling, and instruction related to auditory, vestibular, and related functions and the modification of communicative disorders involving speech, language, auditory behavior, or other aberrant behavior resulting from auditory dysfunction; and the planning, directing, conducting, supervising, or participating in programs of identification of auditory disorders, hearing conservation, cerumen removal, aural habilitation, and rehabilitation, including hearing aid recommendation and evaluation procedures, including, but not limited to, specifying amplification requirements and evaluation of the results thereof, auditory training, and speech reading, and the selling of hearing aids.

(l) A “dispensing audiologist” is a person who is authorized to sell hearing aids pursuant to their audiology license.

(m) “Audiology aide” means any person meeting the minimum requirements established by the board who works directly under the supervision of an audiologist. The board may by regulation exempt certain functions performed by an industrial audiology aide from supervision provided that their employer has established a set of procedures or protocols that the aide shall follow in performing these functions.

(n) “Medical board” means the Medical Board of California.

(o) A “hearing screening” performed by a speech-language pathologist means a binary puretone screening at a preset intensity level for the purpose of determining if the screened individuals are in need of further medical or audiological evaluation.

(p) “Cerumen removal” means the nonroutine removal of cerumen within the cartilaginous ear canal necessary for access in performance of audiological procedures that shall occur under physician and surgeon supervision. Cerumen removal, as provided by this section, shall only be performed by a licensed audiologist. Physician and surgeon supervision shall not be construed to require the physical presence of the physician, but shall include all of the following:

(1) Collaboration on the development of written standardized protocols. The protocols shall include a requirement that the supervised audiologist immediately refer to an appropriate physician any trauma, including skin tears, bleeding, or other pathology of the ear discovered in the process of cerumen removal as defined in this subdivision.

(2) Approval by the supervising physician of the written standardized protocol.

(3) The supervising physician shall be within the general vicinity, as provided by the physician-audiologist protocol, of the supervised audiologist and available by telephone contact at the time of cerumen removal.

(4) A licensed physician and surgeon may not simultaneously supervise more than two audiologists for purposes of cerumen removal.

history: (History: Amended by Stats. 2024, Ch. 80, Sec. 3. (SB 1525) Effective January 1, 2025.)

article: 1. General Provisions